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Posted by Launchywiggin (Member # 9116) on :
 
One of my facebook friends recently updated her status after seeing the latest horror movie craze:

quote:
Paranormal Activity may possibly the best tool to teach about the importance of spiritual warfare. It's about time you people realized this stuff is more real than you think. Ephesians 6:12.
It's a trend I've noticed over the past few years in movies and TV--we need to start giving credence to ghost stories. I'm especially puzzled at how many of these comments are coming from my religious friends. I was taught (as a young Baptist) that all of those horror ghost movies were hogwash. That exorcism was a Catholic thing--and even they don't like publicizing it.

What is it about ghost stories in particular that has my friends quoting bible verses about donning the Armor of God against "Dark powers" and "Forces of Evil"--but not after the latest Friday the 13th movie? Or werewolves and vampires? Are those more obviously "not real" than the ghosts?

I looked up Ephesians 6:12 as she suggested, but I was too struck by the verses that came immediately preceding in Ephesians 6:5-8

quote:
5Slaves, obey your earthly masters with respect and fear, and with sincerity of heart, just as you would obey Christ. 6Obey them not only to win their favor when their eye is on you, but like slaves of Christ, doing the will of God from your heart. 7Serve wholeheartedly, as if you were serving the Lord, not men, 8because you know that the Lord will reward everyone for whatever good he does, whether he is slave or free.
Now that's a verse I'd never heard on Sunday morning! Is the translation funky or is that what it's supposed to say?
 
Posted by Shanna (Member # 7900) on :
 
Its a minor point but the spirit in "Paranormal Activity" is actually a demon rather than a ghost. Not sure it makes much of a difference since from my perspective they're equally unbelievable.

On a similar note, I work at a bookstore and had a lady ask my opinion regarding "Wicked" and her daughter's intense desire to read it. She feared the book itself might be evil and it took myself and another girl to convince her that the book is about prejudice rather than a propaganda piece for witchcraft.

For every Christian I know who rejects the mumbo-jumbo about demons and Satan and witches and ghosts, I hear from people who honestly in their hearts think "Harry Potter" and ghost stories will destroy their relationship with Jesus.
 
Posted by mr_porteiro_head (Member # 4644) on :
 
quote:
For every Christian I know who rejects the mumbo-jumbo about demons and Satan and witches and ghosts, I hear from people who honestly in their hearts think "Harry Potter" and ghost stories will destroy their relationship with Jesus.
And some of us do neither. [Smile]
 
Posted by Launchywiggin (Member # 9116) on :
 
If you don't mind, what is that middle ground, mph? I had the same conversation about "The Exorcism of Emily Rose" a few years back. My friend was saying "what's REALLY scary is that movies like this are actually REAL--I read about it online". Where is the line drawn between The Headless Horseman, Casper, Dracula, Harry Potter and The Exorcist? People claim to have seen werewolves, vampires and ghosts--just like demons.

Another thing that bothers me is the idea that guys like Hitler and Sadaam Hussein were possessed by demons. It glosses over the fact that humans can be awful on their own.
 
Posted by Tresopax (Member # 1063) on :
 
quote:
Or werewolves and vampires? Are those more obviously "not real" than the ghosts?
I think, actually, those probably ARE more obviously "not real" than ghosts. Werewolves and vampires would preumably need biological explanations that don't seem to make sense, whereas ghosts would not, for one thing. So I don't think one can lump all "supernatural" things together and declare them all equal.
 
Posted by TomDavidson (Member # 124) on :
 
Well, since all things supernatural are equally unreal, there's at least one way in which they are indeed analogous. They are not all equally unlikely, I suppose.
 
Posted by mr_porteiro_head (Member # 4644) on :
 
quote:
If you don't mind, what is that middle ground, mph?
I wouldn't call it a middle ground. One one hand, I believe some of the "supernatural" things you mentioned really exist in some manner, even if I wouldn't use those terms. On the other hand, I enjoy Harry Potter, Tolkien, and other fantasy books, and play D&D with my children.

quote:
Where is the line drawn between The Headless Horseman, Casper, Dracula, Harry Potter and The Exorcist?
It's whether the viewer thinks that the events in the movie could happen. I'd guess there are more people in America who believe that the basic events in The Exorcists could happen than believe that the basic events of Casper or Dracula could happen.
 
Posted by BlackBlade (Member # 8376) on :
 
LaunchyWiggin:
quote:
Another thing that bothers me is the idea that guys like Hitler and Sadaam Hussein were possessed by demons. It glosses over the fact that humans can be awful on their own.
Not exactly. I'm not saying they were possessed, but if they were that does not necessarily preclude them being terrible people in the first place. Evil people are pretty prime real estate as far as demonic possession goes.

MPH gave a very good summation of how I feel on the matter.
 
Posted by Noemon (Member # 1115) on :
 
Porter, Blackblade, I'm curious by what you mean by "witches" when you say that you believe in them. How are you defining the term?
 
Posted by steven (Member # 8099) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Noemon:
Porter, Blackblade, I'm curious by what you mean by "witches" when you say that you believe in them. How are you defining the term?

That was misspelled. He meant "bitches". Porter is a gangsta rapper on the side. Jam Master P, featuring goats.
 
Posted by mr_porteiro_head (Member # 4644) on :
 
Noemon -- that's not a conversation I'm interested in having. [Smile]
 
Posted by Launchywiggin (Member # 9116) on :
 
She followed up her status with this:
quote:
I'm not freaked out because I'm a child of God and I know that even if something were to happen He would protect me
This movie is really getting to people on a visceral level--but from what I've seen in the preview, I already know exactly what I'm gonna see. It's a horror movie for pete's sake.

What is it about demons that makes them scarier than ghosts? I'm missing something here, because people don't react like this to the latest "Haunted House" movie. *edit* because there's as much evidence in the real world for ghost stories as there is for demon stories.

Another post:
quote:
I'm interested into seeing just how the "demon" in this is portrayed, because this real stuff that I've had real experiences dealing with. I'm more concerned with this movie misdirecting cultural views from real demonology than I am with it over sensationalizing stuff, mostly because from my experience it's pretty hard to over sensationalize just how demons and Satan work.
I guess what's confusing me is that they're getting all serious about this movie instead of the movies about witches and werewolves and--how about serial killers? Aren't those all candidates for demonic possession?
 
Posted by BlackBlade (Member # 8376) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Noemon:
Porter, Blackblade, I'm curious by what you mean by "witches" when you say that you believe in them. How are you defining the term?

I'm not sure I'd be very useful as a conversant on that topic. I believe they exist, I have not spent much time determining exactly what categorizes somebody as one.
 
Posted by King of Men (Member # 6684) on :
 
This is, of course, exactly why it is so important not to believe things based on hearsay and habit. Once you let in one piece of unsupported nonsense, you're terribly vulnerable to every other piece of it out there. Vampires, demons, ghosts, and witches are every bit as well supported by evidence as afterlives, resurrections, gods, and souls.
 
Posted by scifibum (Member # 7625) on :
 
I heard a self-described witch talking on the radio the other day.
 
Posted by Tresopax (Member # 1063) on :
 
quote:
This is, of course, exactly why it is so important not to believe things based on hearsay and habit. Once you let in one piece of unsupported nonsense, you're terribly vulnerable to every other piece of it out there. Vampires, demons, ghosts, and witches are every bit as well supported by evidence as afterlives, resurrections, gods, and souls.
The vast majority of things a person learns in life are based on hearsay and habit - including most of one's education, where one is told what is true (hearsay) and trained to approach things in a certain way (habit). For instance, the duckbilled platypus makes as little sense as a unicorn does; the sole reason I believe in it is hearsay (I was told it exists.)

This does not make one more "vulnerable" to believing nonsense. Informed human judgment can generally tell that things like gravity, souls, World War II, and duckbilled platypi seem to fit with what we know about the world in a way that werewolves and vampires do not. There's a spectrum of obviously true things on one end and obviously false things on the other, but accepting the existence of some things that are less obviously true does not cause one to accept everything on the spectrum equally.
 
Posted by TomDavidson (Member # 124) on :
 
quote:
Informed human judgment can generally tell that things like gravity, souls, World War II, and duckbilled platypi seem to fit with what we know about the world in a way that werewolves and vampires do not.
Heh. I see how you snuck "souls" in there.
 
Posted by scholarette (Member # 11540) on :
 
My sister in law is a witch, though I believe she prefers the term wiccan (but witch is still ok with her).
 
Posted by Shanna (Member # 7900) on :
 
I think what makes "Paranormal Activity" and other ghost stories so frightening is that lots of people have been startled by a bump in the night. They've had their eyes play tricks on them and allowed their imaginations to run away with them.

The fear is understandable but it doesn't mean that the supernatural explanation is a valid one. And we don't have the same evidence for souls and ghosts like we do for gravity and World War II.
 
Posted by Tresopax (Member # 1063) on :
 
I have far more evidence for souls than I do for World War II. The only evidence I have for World War II is what people have told me and what I've read. Souls, on the other hand, I can observe directly pretty much any time I want.
 
Posted by scifibum (Member # 7625) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Tresopax:
I have far more evidence for souls than I do for World War II. The only evidence I have for World War II is what people have told me and what I've read.

You have a funny way of quantifying evidence. [Smile]
 
Posted by TomDavidson (Member # 124) on :
 
quote:
I have far more evidence for souls than I do for World War II.
I believe we've had this conversation. I think it's cute you keep insisting, though. [Wink]
 
Posted by Tresopax (Member # 1063) on :
 
quote:
You have a funny way of quantifying evidence.
How should I quantify it differently? Do you agree that observations I can make directly on my own (repeatedly if necessary) should be counted as "more evidence" than things I've simply heard or been told by others?
 
Posted by TomDavidson (Member # 124) on :
 
I note that you have not directly observed your soul in any way that does not cheapen the concept of "direct observation."
 
Posted by Tresopax (Member # 1063) on :
 
I suppose what "cheapens" direct observation is a matter of opinion... I'm inclined to think observations of the soul are direct observation even under the strictest sense of the term - they are repeatable, anyone can make such observations themselves anytime, they don't rely on any instruments that could misleading, etc.

A soul is a person's mental self. Every time I feel or experience anything, that necessitates the existence of a self that is doing the feeling or experiencing of that thing. If I pinch myself and feel pain, that necessitates the existence of a mental self that is experiencing that pain. That's really all it takes to directly observe a soul. I do it literally every second of my conscious existence.

Since we've had the discussion before, Tom, I realize you personally don't believe I am actually experiencing anything (you think I am just reporting to myself that I am experiencing something.) But I nevertheless do observe it that way, and that observation does not come from hearsay/other people.
 
Posted by scifibum (Member # 7625) on :
 
If "soul" is just your label for the subjective experience of self, then I think you are using it quite differently than most people use the word, Tresopax.
 
Posted by Shanna (Member # 7900) on :
 
A soul seems like such an unnecessary explanation for what can be explained by studying the brain.
 
Posted by 0Megabyte (Member # 8624) on :
 
I could show you things that were used in WW2, and let you meet people who were in it.

What can you do to show me a soul, that isn't explained by neural activity in the brain?
 
Posted by MattP (Member # 10495) on :
 
quote:
My sister in law is a witch, though I believe she prefers the term wiccan (but witch is still ok with her).
Presumably this is not the variety of witches to which we are referring.

Blackblade, since Porter is not willing to go there can you provide any elaboration at all on this? I'm honestly curious.
 
Posted by Tresopax (Member # 1063) on :
 
Eh, what do you think a soul is? Here's what Wikipedia says:

quote:
The soul, in many religions, spiritual traditions, and philosophies, is the spiritual and eternal part of a living being, commonly held to be separable in existence from the body; distinct from the physical part. It is typically thought to consist of ones consciousness and personality, and can be synonymous with the spirit, mind or self.[1] The soul is believed to live on after the person’s physical death, and some religions posit that God creates souls. In some cultures, non-human living things, and sometimes other objects (such as rivers) are said to have souls, a belief known as animism.[2]

The terms soul and spirit are often used interchangeably, although the latter may be viewed as a more worldly and less transcendent aspect of a person than the former.[3] The words soul and psyche can also be treated synonymously, although psyche has relatively more physical connotations, whereas soul is connected more closely to metaphysics and religion.

I'm not going to speculate on whether the soul exists after death, what sort of material (or nonmaterial) is is made of, or where it comes from, etc. because I have very little firsthand information on that. Take that out and I think the basics boil down to a thing that is your "self" which is mental and not identical to your physical body.
 
Posted by Christine (Member # 8594) on :
 
I really don't see why religion/spirituality and belief in certain paranormal phenomenon are mutually exclusive. If you believe in God, Satan, demons, souls, and miracles than how much of a stretch is it to believe in ghosts, answered prayers, and demon possessions?

Religion is already a leap of faith and belief in the supernatural.

Now, people who believe every story posted on the Internet or who believe these horror movies have an ounce of truth to them probably need to have their heads examined.

Somewhere, maybe there's a middle ground. An open mind to the possibility that unexplained things do happen, with a healthy skepticism to hep try to explain them. Your basic Molder and Scully. [Smile]

I've been doing some reading lately -- trying to expand my horizons and learn about different points of view and different religions. A while back I picked up a book on Wicca, out of curiosity (this is not the same thing as witchcraft, though some call themselves witches). Some of it is pretty out-there, but most of it is just a different religion -- a different way of looking at things. The "spells" are basically prayers, dressed up in ritual. If you believe prayers can be answered, then why not spells?

So I don't know...I don't believe in ghosts or demons but I don't think they're quite as "out there" as our modern scientific minds would have us believe.
 
Posted by scifibum (Member # 7625) on :
 
Tresopax, if you can't see the glaring gap between the common definition you just quoted and what you described as your observation of your own soul, then I doubt I can explain it to you.
 
Posted by dkw (Member # 3264) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by MattP:
quote:
My sister in law is a witch, though I believe she prefers the term wiccan (but witch is still ok with her).
Presumably this is not the variety of witches to which we are referring.

I'm not sure why you would presume that.
 
Posted by Tresopax (Member # 1063) on :
 
Scifi, I explained the gap in the two sentence below the quote. I'm boiling out all the speculation on the soul I can't prove, which mostly varies from religion to religion anyway, and focusing on what it is that I can prove to myself. If you don't want to call that a "soul" okay - perhaps we can call it an "auia" or make up some different term.

quote:
A soul seems like such an unnecessary explanation for what can be explained by studying the brain.
Well, yes and no. It is entirely possible that the soul arises in some way from neural activity in the brain. That doesn't mean it doesn't exist as something distinct from the brain.

The difference relates to some philosophical issues that would take a very long tangent to explain. (We've done it before, but if people won't complain I can go through it if you want...) The most prominent issue, in my view, is The Hard Problem of Consciousness. But really what it boils down to is that neural activity can explain why people function the way they do, but not why they have a self that experiences life and exists as a singular thing across time, rather than simply being a robot.
 
Posted by dkw (Member # 3264) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Christine:
The "spells" are basically prayers, dressed up in ritual.

The big huge glaring theological difference is that a spell is an attempt to wield power directly, while a prayer is a request made of someone else.
 
Posted by MattP (Member # 10495) on :
 
quote:
The big huge glaring theological difference is that a spell is an attempt to wield power directly, while a prayer is a request made of someone else.
Not always. I recall my Wiccan friends asking this goddess or that to perform some action for them on many occasions. Also, there are some LDS ordinances that *are* a direct wielding of power. A priesthood blessing, for instance.
 
Posted by MattP (Member # 10495) on :
 
quote:
I'm not sure why you would presume that.
Because the majority of those sort of witches are deluded teens that eventually grow out of it. Presumably it's OK to suffer them to live. Or should I not presume that either?

EDIT: Also because BlackBlade said it was hard to define. "Wiccan" isn't a difficult definition, so I assumed he meant something else.
 
Posted by Christine (Member # 8594) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by dkw:
quote:
Originally posted by Christine:
The "spells" are basically prayers, dressed up in ritual.

The big huge glaring theological difference is that a spell is an attempt to wield power directly, while a prayer is a request made of someone else.
I don't know...I've always thought of prayer as an attempt to wield power, even if it is done in a humbling way. It's a sort of "ask and ye shall receive" power.

Plus, a lot of Wiccans ask the Goddess of God for help.

But in some ways I would say that the differences go deeper than you say even here, since most Wiccans believe that we ourselves are divine (as part of a sort of universal divinity -- all things in nature are divine).

Hmmm...I think you got me off the point. The point I was trying to make was this: The spells, whatever you think of the theology behind them, are no more supernatural than prayers and to the extent they are answered, can be explained in much the same way.
 
Posted by King of Men (Member # 6684) on :
 
Eh. I was beginning to write a nice long rant about the evidence for WW2, starting thus:

My junior high school was bombed by the British, trying to get the U-boat bunker down in the harbour (which still stands; the reinforced concrete has been "too expensive to knock down" for sixty years now). A rusting old bombshell still stands in the schoolyard, as a reminder of the children who died. My grandfather fought in the war, had a destroyer sunk beneath him in the battle off Crete, and lived to personally tell me the tale.

But then I saw that Tres is just doing his usual trick of not speaking English, but a made-up personal language where common words mean something quite different. I don't know why I let it get to me.
 
Posted by TomDavidson (Member # 124) on :
 
quote:
The big huge glaring theological difference is that a spell is an attempt to wield power directly...
As people have already mentioned, most Wiccan "spells" involve drawing on the power of something else, even if the caster is the one choosing the target.
 
Posted by Xavier (Member # 405) on :
 
quote:
I have far more evidence for souls than I do for World War II. The only evidence I have for World War II is what people have told me and what I've read.
You must not have the history channel then.


**** SPOILERS FOR THOSE WHO LIVE UNDERGROUND AND SOMEHOW MISSED IT ****

There are hundreds and thousands of hours of audio and video footage of WWII.

**** END SPOILERS ****
 
Posted by Tresopax (Member # 1063) on :
 
quote:
My junior high school was bombed by the British, trying to get the U-boat bunker down in the harbour (which still stands; the reinforced concrete has been "too expensive to knock down" for sixty years now). A rusting old bombshell still stands in the schoolyard, as a reminder of the children who died. My grandfather fought in the war, had a destroyer sunk beneath him in the battle off Crete, and lived to personally tell me the tale.
But then here's the question: Should I believe you when you say all of that? And if I do, isn't that hearsay?

It seems to me I should take you on your word about all that stuff, and thus that there's nothing wrong per se with believing people when they tell you stuff about the world you can't personally prove... as long as your personal judgement tells you it sounds legitimate and doesn't contradict too many things you believe about the world. I can judge the difference fairly easily, for instance, between your WW2 story here and the story of the Headless Horseman. One seems likely true; the other seems likely false. Accepting your "hearsay" about WW2 as true doesn't put me in danger of believing the Headless Horseman really runs loose in the world.
 
Posted by dkw (Member # 3264) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by TomDavidson:
quote:
The big huge glaring theological difference is that a spell is an attempt to wield power directly...
As people have already mentioned, most Wiccan "spells" involve drawing on the power of something else, even if the caster is the one choosing the target.
Yes, and "drawing on" power vs requesting a favor of someone else is exactly what distinguishes the definition of magic from the definition of (suplicatory) prayer. Which is not saying that wiccans don't ever pray or that Christians don't ever attempt magic.
 
Posted by MattP (Member # 10495) on :
 
But if both groups use both magic and prayer then where is the distinction? Just in relative proportions?
 
Posted by Samprimary (Member # 8561) on :
 
quote:
I have far more evidence for souls than I do for World War II.
Well, you don't, but the ways in which you think you do are at least interesting on a level of willful belief.
 
Posted by King of Men (Member # 6684) on :
 
Nu. In the weird sense of "soul" as "conscious experience", Tres actually does have more evidence for it than for WWII, assuming arguendo that he's not a zombie with no internal narrative. To wit, he has experienced the one but not the other directly. In the sense that the rest of the English-speaking world uses the word, he's gibbering utter nonsense; but that's only to be expected when someone begins making up their own language. Not that I've got anything against conlangs, as such, but it gets confusing when they insist on using the same words that English does.
 
Posted by fugu13 (Member # 2859) on :
 
Tres: tell me, in what way did you experience it not being part of your physical body?
 
Posted by Christine (Member # 8594) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by dkw:
quote:
Originally posted by TomDavidson:
quote:
The big huge glaring theological difference is that a spell is an attempt to wield power directly...
As people have already mentioned, most Wiccan "spells" involve drawing on the power of something else, even if the caster is the one choosing the target.
Yes, and "drawing on" power vs requesting a favor of someone else is exactly what distinguishes the definition of magic from the definition of (suplicatory) prayer. Which is not saying that wiccans don't ever pray or that Christians don't ever attempt magic.
Ok, but does this distinction make one approach supernatural?
 
Posted by dkw (Member # 3264) on :
 
Yes. And also the other one.

ETA: Wait . . . that would depend on your definition of "natural" I suppose. I can see definitions by which only one or the other would fit.
 
Posted by Christine (Member # 8594) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by dkw:
Yes. And also the other one.

ETA: Wait . . . that would depend on your definition of "natural" I suppose. I can see definitions by which only one or the other would fit.

Yeah, that was probably a bad question, now that I think about it a bit. [Smile]

Honestly, I think of them as both natural phenomena that we simply have not managed to explain but that, in the meantime, make a great many people feel at peace.
 
Posted by King of Men (Member # 6684) on :
 
quote:
Honestly, I think of them as both natural phenomena that we simply have not managed to explain but that, in the meantime, make a great many people feel at peace.
Wait, what about prayer and/or spells do you think is unexplained?
 
Posted by scifibum (Member # 7625) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Tresopax:
Scifi, I explained the gap in the two sentence below the quote.

No, I mean the other huge glaring difference. The one that fugu13 asked you about. The one that is inseparable from any common definition of "soul". Where it is something separable and distinct from your corpus.
 
Posted by BlackBlade (Member # 8376) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by MattP:
quote:
I'm not sure why you would presume that.
Because the majority of those sort of witches are deluded teens that eventually grow out of it. Presumably it's OK to suffer them to live. Or should I not presume that either?

EDIT: Also because BlackBlade said it was hard to define. "Wiccan" isn't a difficult definition, so I assumed he meant something else.

You're pretty close to my predicament Matt. Wiccan's call themselves witches, and there may be elements to their belief that skirt forbidden territory but I couldn't say right now.

Also interestingly enough the scripture about not suffering witches to live was rendered "murderer" when Joseph Smith took a look at it.

I'll try and do some deep thinking and put out how I feel about super natural elements, but again I stress it's one of those things that I have not gone very much out of my way to form opinions on.
 
Posted by Glenn Arnold (Member # 3192) on :
 
quote:
The big huge glaring theological difference is that a spell is an attempt to wield power directly, while a prayer is a request made of someone else.
This just describes a difference between Magical spells and Clerical spells. It's just a matter of how you use the word.

Perhaps a better example is that of curses. A pagan curse and a christian curse are both curses, but one relies on magic, and one relies on God to comply with your request. It may be made in the form of prayer, but it's still a curse.
 
Posted by TomDavidson (Member # 124) on :
 
And, of course, prior to a couple years ago, you needed to spend a couple hours every morning re-reading all the spells you expected to cast that day, whereas the religious could spend a roughly equivalent amount of time praying in advance for fairly minor and often oddly specific acts of divine intervention.
 
Posted by aeolusdallas (Member # 11455) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Tresopax:
quote:
)

This does not make one more "vulnerable" to believing nonsense. Informed human judgment can generally tell that things like gravity, souls, World War II, and duckbilled platypi seem to fit with what we know about the world in a way that werewolves and vampires do not.

One of these things is not like the other.....


quote:
Originally posted by Tresopax:
[QUOTE]You have a funny way of quantifying evidence.

How should I quantify it differently? Do you agree that observations I can make directly on my own (repeatedly if necessary) should be counted as "more evidence" than things I've simply heard or been told by others?
You would need verification from impartial third parties. Otherwise we would have to accept the ravings of every schizophrenic as true.

quote:
Originally posted by dkw:
quote:
Originally posted by Christine:
The "spells" are basically prayers, dressed up in ritual.

The big huge glaring theological difference is that a spell is an attempt to wield power directly, while a prayer is a request made of someone else.
Aren't most spells more a request from spirits of place or ancestors for assistance? Than a direct attempt at wielding power?

[ October 24, 2009, 01:41 AM: Message edited by: aeolusdallas ]
 
Posted by aeolusdallas (Member # 11455) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by TomDavidson:
And, of course, prior to a couple years ago, you needed to spend a couple hours every morning re-reading all the spells you expected to cast that day, whereas the religious could spend a roughly equivalent amount of time praying in advance for fairly minor and often oddly specific acts of divine intervention.

You've gotta love progress
 
Posted by Christine (Member # 8594) on :
 
quote:
Aren't most spells more a request from spirits of place or ancestors for assistance? Than a direct attempt at wielding power?
I don't think anyone knows what "most spells" are like.
 
Posted by aeolusdallas (Member # 11455) on :
 
I meant as practiced by actual believers.
 
Posted by Christine (Member # 8594) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by aeolusdallas:
I meant as practiced by actual believers.

So did I. [Smile]
 
Posted by aeolusdallas (Member # 11455) on :
 
You said I don't think anyone knows what "most spells" are like." I was asking what actual believers think spells are. Considering how metaphorical magic is in folklore and myth I think we can ask the question with some confidence as to what most spells are or are not.

I don't believe in magic, spirits , gods etc... but that doesn't mean I am not interested in the ideas behind them. I am pretty sure that as a general rule casting magic spells was an attempt at invoking aide from spirits of place or asking ones ancestors or the spirits of specific individuals for assistance. It was not usually an attempt to directly wield power as is done in fantasy books or games.
 
Posted by Teshi (Member # 5024) on :
 
quote:
Now that's a verse I'd never heard on Sunday morning! Is the translation funky or is that what it's supposed to say?
Read the Bible (whichever translation you wish) from cover to cover some day. You will be surprised what doesn't come up on Sunday morning.
 
Posted by Christine (Member # 8594) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by aeolusdallas:
You said I don't think anyone knows what "most spells" are like." I was asking what actual believers think spells are. Considering how metaphorical magic is in folklore and myth I think we can ask the question with some confidence as to what most spells are or are not.

I don't believe in magic, spirits , gods etc... but that doesn't mean I am not interested in the ideas behind them. I am pretty sure that as a general rule casting magic spells was an attempt at invoking aide from spirits of place or asking ones ancestors or the spirits of specific individuals for assistance. It was not usually an attempt to directly wield power as is done in fantasy books or games.

No, it's not like it is in fantasy books or games. That much I can agree with. [Smile]

But as to the rest, I know what I said and I still stand by it. Even in real world magic, whether you believe in it or not, I do not believe that anyone can say with confidence what most people are attempting to do, whether they are attempting to invoke aid or wield power.

The reason I say this is because despite the recent popularity of "New Age" religions, most spells and magic use is something that is secret or at least private. It is this way because at best, people ridicule it and at worse, they consider it wrong or evil.

I also say this because there are a great many magical traditions around the world, no two of which are exactly alike, and there has been very little actual study of these in any kind of impartial or academic way. Actually, if anyone has done this, I'd love to know because I've been trying to make a study of world religions and practices over the past few months and I am very interested in this.
 
Posted by dkw (Member # 3264) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by aeolusdallas:
I am pretty sure that as a general rule casting magic spells was an attempt at invoking aide from spirits of place or asking ones ancestors or the spirits of specific individuals for assistance. It was not usually an attempt to directly wield power as is done in fantasy books or games.

From a Google search "Wicca" "what is magic":
First result (skipping a spam ad page): "As Witches we cast spells and use magic to our advantage or for the advantage of those around us. This is done by manipulating the forces of the universe to gain what we seek."

Next result (skipping selling-things pages): "Magick is another word for transformation, creation, and manifestation. Wicca magick is a tool we use to act on the subtle - or energy, or quantum - level of reality. "

The Wiki articles on Wicca and Magic also disagree with you.

Plus the good old Aleister Crowley definition of "magick" - "the science and art of causing change to occur in conformity with the will."
 
Posted by FriendlyNeighborhoodWitch (Member # 6317) on :
 
I am so glad that I read through to the second page. For awhile there, it sounded as though you folks had decided that I didn't exist!

Really, this is poor form for me to be tardy to a conversation about Wicca or witchcraft when it's so close to Samhain. I apologize.

quote:
Originally posted by dkw:

From a Google search "Wicca" "what is magic":
First result (skipping a spam ad page): "As Witches we cast spells and use magic to our advantage or for the advantage of those around us. This is done by manipulating the forces of the universe to gain what we seek."

Next result (skipping selling-things pages): "Magick is another word for transformation, creation, and manifestation. Wicca magick is a tool we use to act on the subtle - or energy, or quantum - level of reality. "

The problem with running a Google search on what Wiccans see as magic is that there are multiple traditions of Wicca (much to Gardenarian Wiccan's chagrin) much as there are different sects of Christianity. What one believes is magic or what they do or call upon to help them in spell-craft is not necessarily what another person who is also Wiccan might believe. I can tell you what it is or means to me, but not even all spells are performed the same, call upon the same sources depending on what the intended goal is, the time of year, or heck, the time of month!

It sounds like a lot of you are on the right track for identifying how some (but not all-a lot of Wiccans are very quick to deny that our religion is anything like mainstream religions) Wiccans view their own religion. I can tell you that from my point of view, spells are very often (but not always) no different than prayers in purpose, although I have prayed as well and feel it's an undervalued act in Wicca. Rituals are usually more akin to say Christmas Mass or church on Easter Sunday.

An example: When I pray I am talking directly to the God and Goddess-it's a direct open line from me to them. When I am performing a ritual with my coven it is often in celebration of a hand-fasting (marriage), saining (much like a christening or baptism), or a holiday, like Samhain or Beltaine. When I am performing a spell, I am either asking the God and Goddess (or other acting power, which is where it gets more complicated) to act on my behalf or to grant me the power to do something. The 'something' may be as simple as to have strength to do well in an interview or as complicated as asking for protection from someone else.

quote:
Originally posted by MattP:

Because the majority of those sort of witches are deluded teens that eventually grow out of it.

This was a really disappointing thing to hear you say. That's very much like if I said that most 'Born Again' Christian teens would eventually grow out of their love for their God. Although I acknowledge that a large number of verbose Wiccans are teenagers, perhaps the 'growing out of it' that you are seeing is simply them 'growing up' and realizing that they are perhaps not being the best spokespeople for a religion they want other people to respect.

Just sayin'.
 
Posted by Christine (Member # 8594) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by FriendlyNeighborhoodWitch:

quote:
Originally posted by dkw:

From a Google search "Wicca" "what is magic":
First result (skipping a spam ad page): "As Witches we cast spells and use magic to our advantage or for the advantage of those around us. This is done by manipulating the forces of the universe to gain what we seek."

Next result (skipping selling-things pages): "Magick is another word for transformation, creation, and manifestation. Wicca magick is a tool we use to act on the subtle - or energy, or quantum - level of reality. "

The problem with running a Google search on what Wiccans see as magic is that there are multiple traditions of Wicca (much to Gardenarian Wiccan's chagrin) much as there are different sects of Christianity. What one believes is magic or what they do or call upon to help them in spell-craft is not necessarily what another person who is also Wiccan might believe. I can tell you what it is or means to me, but not even all spells are performed the same, call upon the same sources depending on what the intended goal is, the time of year, or heck, the time of month!

This was the point I was trying to make when I saw that I doubted anyone knew what "most spells" were like. Aside from the different traditions of Wicca, there are also other traditions around the world that incorporate spells in their religion. But even if we just look at Wicca, one of the numerous traditions is that of the solitary practitioner, in which case each individual may have a slightly different take on things.

quote:
quote:Originally posted by MattP:

Because the majority of those sort of witches are deluded teens that eventually grow out of it.

This was a really disappointing thing to hear you say. That's very much like if I said that most 'Born Again' Christian teens would eventually grow out of their love for their God. Although I acknowledge that a large number of verbose Wiccans are teenagers, perhaps the 'growing out of it' that you are seeing is simply them 'growing up' and realizing that they are perhaps not being the best spokespeople for a religion they want other people to respect.

I'm not sure how many people see Wicca as a religion. [Frown]

[ October 25, 2009, 10:30 AM: Message edited by: Christine ]
 
Posted by TomDavidson (Member # 124) on :
 
I think Wicca, as an intentional religion, is roughly on par with Kwanzaa as an intentional holiday; because it didn't grow organically out of the culture, it'll take a couple more generations before the majority will take it seriously.
 
Posted by scholarette (Member # 11540) on :
 
My sister in law is not a teenager. She is a married adult with a master's degree and a house, currently working on her phd (history, specifically looking at scientific advances and how they affect things).
 
Posted by BelladonnaOrchid (Member # 188) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by TomDavidson:
I think Wicca, as an intentional religion, is roughly on par with Kwanzaa as an intentional holiday; because it didn't grow organically out of the culture, it'll take a couple more generations before the majority will take it seriously.

In how other people view Wicca, I think that this is dead on. I find it extremely unfortunate, but can only do my part to help other people understand my religion and correct misunderstandings when I see them.

quote:
Originally posted by scholarette:
My sister in law is not a teenager. She is a married adult with a master's degree and a house, currently working on her phd (history, specifically looking at scientific advances and how they affect things).

It's good to hear that. [Smile] People are often surprised to find out that my husband and I are Wiccan. We are, after all, seemingly well-adjusted adults. It has to do with that mis-conception that was discussed above.

[ October 25, 2009, 06:22 PM: Message edited by: BelladonnaOrchid ]
 
Posted by MattP (Member # 10495) on :
 
quote:
My sister in law is not a teenager.
Then she's clearly not a member of group that I identified. Most of the Wiccans I've met were teens that were more role-playing than practicing a religion. I don't mean to demean Wicca itself. I think it's as real as any religion and does have committed adherents.

My real point was that I could hardly see these faux-pagan teens being the sort of witch who's deeds would be worthy of death per the admonition in the Bible.
 
Posted by Christine (Member # 8594) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by TomDavidson:
I think Wicca, as an intentional religion, is roughly on par with Kwanzaa as an intentional holiday; because it didn't grow organically out of the culture, it'll take a couple more generations before the majority will take it seriously.

I'm not sure what you mean when you say "grow organically out of the culture." I've tried to draft a couple of responses to this but in each one I realize I'm not entirely sure what you're getting at, so I'll just see if I can get a clarification before adding more thoughts.

quote:
Originally posted by MattP:
quote:
My sister in law is not a teenager.
Then she's clearly not a member of group that I identified. Most of the Wiccans I've met were teens that were more role-playing than practicing a religion. I don't mean to demean Wicca itself. I think it's as real as any religion and does have committed adherents.

My real point was that I could hardly see these faux-pagan teens being the sort of witch who's deeds would be worthy of death per the admonition in the Bible.

I've run into two distinct subgroups in this case. The first is the teens you've mentioned and I don't think they understand what they're doing. I doubt very much that they're even looking for a religion so much as real-life magic.

The other subgroup are actually adults -- typically thirties and forties -- who are looking for an alternative spiritual path.
 
Posted by TomDavidson (Member # 124) on :
 
quote:
I'm not sure what you mean when you say "grow organically out of the culture." I've tried to draft a couple of responses to this but in each one I realize I'm not entirely sure what you're getting at, so I'll just see if I can get a clarification before adding more thoughts.
I mean, speaking bluntly, Wicca in its current form was pretty much invented out of whole cloth within our lifetimes to achieve a certain purpose and somewhat awkwardly grafted onto slightly Bowdlerized older traditions to give it a sense of weight and historic legitimacy. The same thing happened with Kwanzaa.

That's not to say that the practice of Wicca has no value, or that the observation of Kwanzaa lacks value, either. It's just that both those things are recent enough that their intentionality is obvious to the casual observer, which prevents people from perceiving them as fully "traditional." Religions and holidays both benefit enormously from a glossy veneer of tradition. Generally it takes a generation or two from the death of the founder(s) for people to forget where they came from.
 
Posted by Eaquae Legit (Member # 3063) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by aeolusdallas:
quote:
Originally posted by dkw:
quote:
Originally posted by Christine:
The "spells" are basically prayers, dressed up in ritual.

The big huge glaring theological difference is that a spell is an attempt to wield power directly, while a prayer is a request made of someone else.
Aren't most spells more a request from spirits of place or ancestors for assistance? Than a direct attempt at wielding power?
Pre-Englightenment, Christians cast "spells" with no apparent contradiction with their faith. They did not see themselves as consorting with demons, but rather teasing out the hidden structures and forces of the universe and manipulating them. It was heavily based on the first chapter of John's Gospel, where God is described as the Word. Words, used correctly, could tap into the divine echoes in the universe and effect results. It wasn't prayer, but it wasn't calling on demons either.

And until a bunch of English Restorationists got their knickers in a twist about it all, it was perfectly okay and Christian. We get our ideas about demon-magic and the separation of signifier from signified from them.

And having learned all this, I find myself with more sympathy for wiccans who can't understand why Christians keep telling them they worship demons.
 
Posted by BlackBlade (Member # 8376) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Eaquae Legit:
quote:
Originally posted by aeolusdallas:
quote:
Originally posted by dkw:
quote:
Originally posted by Christine:
The "spells" are basically prayers, dressed up in ritual.

The big huge glaring theological difference is that a spell is an attempt to wield power directly, while a prayer is a request made of someone else.
Aren't most spells more a request from spirits of place or ancestors for assistance? Than a direct attempt at wielding power?
Pre-Englightenment, Christians cast "spells" with no apparent contradiction with their faith. They did not see themselves as consorting with demons, but rather teasing out the hidden structures and forces of the universe and manipulating them. It was heavily based on the first chapter of John's Gospel, where God is described as the Word. Words, used correctly, could tap into the divine echoes in the universe and effect results. It wasn't prayer, but it wasn't calling on demons either.

And until a bunch of English Restorationists got their knickers in a twist about it all, it was perfectly okay and Christian. We get our ideas about demon-magic and the separation of signifier from signified from them.

And having learned all this, I find myself with more sympathy for wiccans who can't understand why Christians keep telling them they worship demons.

Christianity both previous to Christ's advent and immediately afterward had nothing to do with "casting spells." The only significant with words has to do with invoking the name of Christ as mediator in addressing the Father of creation in prayer. Beyond that you could argue that sacraments and rituals attached an importance to certain words for their symbolic value. Certainly apostates incorporated superstition into Christianity thus bastardizing it but the text does not support those practices.

Again, Christianity does not attach importance to words in accomplishing difficult tasks, rather in having the faith and will to accomplish it.

-------

As for my views on ghosts and witches. I personally feel spirits and those who seek to commune with them are abroad on the earth. Organized religion and science to a great extent have dwindled their numbers but I do not think they will ever be completely eradicated. I don't feel compelled in anyway to either seek out communion with spirits or to find those who whisper with them. Christians are supposed to avoid those things and stamp them out in their own households but they don't need to go idol smashing or witch hunting, those calls are simply not found in the New Testament or anything written since then. The Old Testament verse about "not suffering a witch to live" according to my beliefs is a mistranslation.

I believe I have seen people become possessed by spirits, I also feel I have felt the presence of spirits from the other side. I believe it's possible there may be natural laws outside science and what even organized religion have thus far described, but as far as God and I are concerned there are reasons I should not seek to learn them.

That's essentially the crux of my belief in the super natural.
 
Posted by MattP (Member # 10495) on :
 
quote:
Again, Christianity does not attach importance to words in accomplishing difficult tasks, rather in having the faith and will to accomplish it.
This seems at odds with the rigidity of certain LDS ordinances where a single mis-spoken word may render the ordinance invalid.
 
Posted by Samprimary (Member # 8561) on :
 
how did science significantly reduce the number of ghosts on the earth?
 
Posted by Samprimary (Member # 8561) on :
 
it wasn't these guys, was it?
 
Posted by Kwea (Member # 2199) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by TomDavidson:
quote:
Informed human judgment can generally tell that things like gravity, souls, World War II, and duckbilled platypi seem to fit with what we know about the world in a way that werewolves and vampires do not.
Heh. I see how you snuck "souls" in there.
Don't worry, the rest of us did as well. [Wink]
 
Posted by Christine (Member # 8594) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by TomDavidson:
quote:
I'm not sure what you mean when you say "grow organically out of the culture." I've tried to draft a couple of responses to this but in each one I realize I'm not entirely sure what you're getting at, so I'll just see if I can get a clarification before adding more thoughts.
I mean, speaking bluntly, Wicca in its current form was pretty much invented out of whole cloth within our lifetimes to achieve a certain purpose and somewhat awkwardly grafted onto slightly Bowdlerized older traditions to give it a sense of weight and historic legitimacy. The same thing happened with Kwanzaa.

That's not to say that the practice of Wicca has no value, or that the observation of Kwanzaa lacks value, either. It's just that both those things are recent enough that their intentionality is obvious to the casual observer, which prevents people from perceiving them as fully "traditional." Religions and holidays both benefit enormously from a glossy veneer of tradition. Generally it takes a generation or two from the death of the founder(s) for people to forget where they came from.

I thought that's where you were going, but I wasn't entirely sure. It is true that Wicca is new (early 20th century, which is slightly longer than my lifetime but not much). From what I can tell it draws on a number of traditions, many of which are generously reinterpreted. I don't believe it was invented whole cloth because I don't think anything is invented out of nothing. Every religion I've ever heard of draws on what came before if for no other reason than because, in filling a need that does not already exist, it must at least separate itself in significant ways from current traditions.

The origin and spread of religion is something I find very interesting. I'm coming to the conclusion that a religion's specific origins are not as important as other factors in determining its spread and popularity. The origin of many religions come with a certain amount of, "Really?" Yet they spread...usually over centuries. It's the spread I find more interesting, and I admit that there's something intangible there that I'm not quite understanding. I remember reading a book on the history of the LDS church (yeah, I know I'm outnumber and I'm about to stick my foot in [Smile] ), just trying to figure out what the appeal was both historically and presently. And I'm picking on that one because as a religion it has come out of its infancy relatively recently and is rapidly gaining acceptance (although not by everyone I know).

Right now I'm seeing a trend of new religions trying to distance themselves from Christianity in certain significant ways. I think the most successful of these at the moment is atheism, though you'd be hard-pressed to get *them* to acknowledge it as a religion, let alone anyone else. [Smile]

But I've also been noticing a large number of people who, while unsatisfied with Christianity, still want to believe in something. I'm one of these people, as a matter of fact, but over the last year or so I've been more and more relieved to find out I am significantly not alone.

So I'm curious what the next new thing will be and hoping very much it won't be Scientology. [Smile]
 
Posted by TomDavidson (Member # 124) on :
 
quote:
I've also been noticing a large number of people who, while unsatisfied with Christianity, still want to believe in something. I'm one of these people, as a matter of fact...
May I ask why you feel the desire to believe in something supernatural?
 
Posted by Christine (Member # 8594) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by TomDavidson:
quote:
I've also been noticing a large number of people who, while unsatisfied with Christianity, still want to believe in something. I'm one of these people, as a matter of fact...
May I ask why you feel the desire to believe in something supernatural?
Belief is such a strong word. I prefer to have ideas because then I can change them when it feels right. As far as supernatural or godly things go, I don't know that I'm ready to embrace any specific ideas but I do know that I'm not at peace and that I feel there is something out there. So I've been reading. And I'm not close to done reading so I'm reluctant to commit to much of anything. The most I can say is that I started meditating, which is something I find very relaxing and I can't argue with results. [Smile]
 
Posted by TomDavidson (Member # 124) on :
 
Oh, I'm all for meditating. I meditate, myself. [Smile]
 
Posted by BlackBlade (Member # 8376) on :
 
MattP: That isn't because the words themselves are imbued with power, but for the sake of maintaining order and consistency throughout the church, not because if they were said any other way they would then be invalid. Foreign translations of the ordinances would likely have some differences in grammar, and yet their effectiveness is not lost.

If you look at our ordinances as a whole, it is more often the case than not that an ordinance will be different every time. Blessing a baby, conferring the Holy Ghost, healing the sick, dedicating temples, marrying, etc. While all of those have similar beginnings, (invoking the name of Christ, performing the ordinance by the authority of the priesthood) they are still specific to the individual in that all of those have a sizable portion allotted to being guided by the Holy Ghost into exhorting, prophesying, promising, etc, all to the individual.

----

Samprimary: I said "Spirits and those who seek to commune with them." I placed them in a group together. Even if it's just the spirit talkers who decrease, that in of itself reduces how often spirits have occasion to manifest themselves. I don't think science actually reduces the number of spirits in the world, but it does reduce the number of people who might seek to explain the unexplained through spirituality, by providing an alternate often correct perspective.
 
Posted by Tresopax (Member # 1063) on :
 
quote:
Tres: tell me, in what way did you experience it not being part of your physical body?
Experience itself isn't physical by nature, in a way similar to how I know that the number seven is not made of clay. That's just not what it is.

However, it is possible that the seat of experience is inseparably linked to something physical. OSC's auia is a good example - its a physical particle that seems to possess the property of being a soul.

quote:
No, I mean the other huge glaring difference. The one that fugu13 asked you about. The one that is inseparable from any common definition of "soul". Where it is something separable and distinct from your corpus.
Being distinct from the body is part of my definition. Being separable from the body is not. See the above example of the auia, which is a physical thing. Or for instance, Aristotle did not believe the soul was separable from the body. ("The soul does not exist without a body and yet is not itself a kind of body. For it is not a body, but something which belongs to a body, and for this reason exists in a body, and in a body of such-and-such a kind" -Aristotle)

I do believe the soul is likely separable from the body, but I don't think it by definition must be.

[ October 26, 2009, 11:28 AM: Message edited by: Tresopax ]
 
Posted by Mucus (Member # 9735) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Christine:
...
So I'm curious what the next new thing will be and hoping very much it won't be Scientology. [Smile]

I'm hoping that it won't be another Taiping (a Chinese adaptation of Christianity in the way that Mormonism is an American adaptation of Christianity).

I wonder if that kind of explosive growth in religion is even possible these days in China with increased access to education and communication, but it still is worrisome.
 
Posted by Samprimary (Member # 8561) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by BlackBlade:
Samprimary: I said "Spirits and those who seek to commune with them." I placed them in a group together. Even if it's just the spirit talkers who decrease, that in of itself reduces how often spirits have occasion to manifest themselves. I don't think science actually reduces the number of spirits in the world, but it does reduce the number of people who might seek to explain the unexplained through spirituality, by providing an alternate often correct perspective.

By an 'alternate perspective,' since science is not going to make the claim "there are no spirits" that scientific research of paranormal claims has shown people who claim to have the ability to talk to or sense spirits are most likely either frauds or have susceptibility to fantastical interpretation of events and otherwise mundane sensory phenomena due to tendencies towards a fantasy-prone personality?
 
Posted by BlackBlade (Member # 8376) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Samprimary:
quote:
Originally posted by BlackBlade:
Samprimary: I said "Spirits and those who seek to commune with them." I placed them in a group together. Even if it's just the spirit talkers who decrease, that in of itself reduces how often spirits have occasion to manifest themselves. I don't think science actually reduces the number of spirits in the world, but it does reduce the number of people who might seek to explain the unexplained through spirituality, by providing an alternate often correct perspective.

By an 'alternate perspective,' since science is not going to make the claim "there are no spirits" that scientific research of paranormal claims has shown people who claim to have the ability to talk to or sense spirits are most likely either frauds or have susceptibility to fantastical interpretation of events and otherwise mundane sensory phenomena due to tendencies towards a fantasy-prone personality?
OK, I guess I'm not following where we disagree.
 
Posted by Raymond Arnold (Member # 11712) on :
 
Your point seemed to be "science reduces people's propensity for looking to spiritual explanations, ergo reduces the effect spirits can have on the world."

Sam's point seems to be "science so far has merely shown that any spirit talker who has come under serious scrutiny has been proven to be a fraud, ergo the number of spirit talkers isn't decreasing, merely the number of fake spirit talkers."

If spirit talkers DID exist in any meaningful numbers, I'd think that debunking the large number of frauds would make us more able to honestly connect with the remaining "genuine" ones.
 
Posted by BlackBlade (Member # 8376) on :
 
Raymond: See I thought I was making Samprimary's point and in addition to that making the statement that science creates a critical mindset where people are less likely to look to spirits or those who claim to speak to them as much.
 
Posted by King of Men (Member # 6684) on :
 
quote:
Being distinct from the body is part of my definition.
But you must know, although probably not by personal experience, that consciousness can be damaged in very specific, repeatable ways by damaging parts of the brain. What sort of "distinct" entity is it that responds so exactly to damage to the entity it is supposed to be distinct from?
 
Posted by Tresopax (Member # 1063) on :
 
My light is distinct from my light switch on the wall, but if you smash the light switch, the light won't turn on. My computer is distinct from the software on it, but if you damage the computer, the software won't work either. The music emitted by my radio is distinct from the radio signal, but if you disrupt the signal it will correspondingly disrupt the music. Etc.
 
Posted by TomDavidson (Member # 124) on :
 
So your argument is that the person whose personality is fundamentally changed by, say, a chemical imbalance has a secret, separate personality that remains unchanged somewhere?
 
Posted by King of Men (Member # 6684) on :
 
quote:
My computer is distinct from the software on it, but if you damage the computer, the software won't work either.
And if that were the only copy of the software, anywhere, then where is the distinct software after you've smashed the computer? Somewhere in idea-space? In fact the software isn't distinct at all: It exists as a magnetic pattern on the computer's hard drive, or as the case may be, in its memory. There is nothing separate from the plain movements of electrons.
 
Posted by Samprimary (Member # 8561) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by BlackBlade:
Raymond: See I thought I was making Samprimary's point and in addition to that making the statement that science creates a critical mindset where people are less likely to look to spirits or those who claim to speak to them as much.

More important than the 'critical mindset' is the practical basis for that mindset. What science does is test testable claims. Whenever a person who claims to be able to talk to spirits either steps out into (or gets caught in) a situation where their claims can be tested, it pretty much always turns out that they are either a huckster, or they earnestly interpret mundane experiences as supernatural influence due to a propensity for fantastical interpretation of the world around them. Everyone who assumes they can see souls or spirits or ghosts or whatever and earnestly believes it should understand based on the human propensity for inventing certainty that the odds are they're just victims of the same process, but reliably trend towards assuming some special case on their own behalf.
 
Posted by Tresopax (Member # 1063) on :
 
quote:
In fact the software isn't distinct at all: It exists as a magnetic pattern on the computer's hard drive, or as the case may be, in its memory. There is nothing separate from the plain movements of electrons.
That's exactly my point: Software and hardware are distinct in spite of the fact that the software originates from the hardware. Therefore, two things can be distinct even if one originates entirely from the other.

I don't know if the soul originates entirely from the body in that way, but it is within the realm of possibilities.

quote:
So your argument is that the person whose personality is fundamentally changed by, say, a chemical imbalance has a secret, separate personality that remains unchanged somewhere?
No, I don't believe having a soul means one has a set personality. Clearly nobody has a set, unchanging personality.
 
Posted by Raymond Arnold (Member # 11712) on :
 
Tres, are you making any particular effort to separate the words "mind" and "soul?" If you're merely trying to prove the existence of the mind, we already believe you, and you shouldn't be using such loaded terminology.
 
Posted by BlackBlade (Member # 8376) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Samprimary:
quote:
Originally posted by BlackBlade:
Raymond: See I thought I was making Samprimary's point and in addition to that making the statement that science creates a critical mindset where people are less likely to look to spirits or those who claim to speak to them as much.

More important than the 'critical mindset' is the practical basis for that mindset. What science does is test testable claims. Whenever a person who claims to be able to talk to spirits either steps out into (or gets caught in) a situation where their claims can be tested, it pretty much always turns out that they are either a huckster, or they earnestly interpret mundane experiences as supernatural influence due to a propensity for fantastical interpretation of the world around them. Everyone who assumes they can see souls or spirits or ghosts or whatever and earnestly believes it should understand based on the human propensity for inventing certainty that the odds are they're just victims of the same process, but reliably trend towards assuming some special case on their own behalf.
True much of the time, but I also think that people who dabble seriously into communication with spirits do not seek out publicity or skeptical scientists.
 
Posted by Eaquae Legit (Member # 3063) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by BlackBlade:
quote:
Originally posted by Eaquae Legit:
quote:
Originally posted by aeolusdallas:
quote:
Originally posted by dkw:
quote:
Originally posted by Christine:
The "spells" are basically prayers, dressed up in ritual.

The big huge glaring theological difference is that a spell is an attempt to wield power directly, while a prayer is a request made of someone else.
Aren't most spells more a request from spirits of place or ancestors for assistance? Than a direct attempt at wielding power?
Pre-Englightenment, Christians cast "spells" with no apparent contradiction with their faith. They did not see themselves as consorting with demons, but rather teasing out the hidden structures and forces of the universe and manipulating them. It was heavily based on the first chapter of John's Gospel, where God is described as the Word. Words, used correctly, could tap into the divine echoes in the universe and effect results. It wasn't prayer, but it wasn't calling on demons either.

And until a bunch of English Restorationists got their knickers in a twist about it all, it was perfectly okay and Christian. We get our ideas about demon-magic and the separation of signifier from signified from them.

And having learned all this, I find myself with more sympathy for wiccans who can't understand why Christians keep telling them they worship demons.

Christianity both previous to Christ's advent and immediately afterward had nothing to do with "casting spells." The only significant with words has to do with invoking the name of Christ as mediator in addressing the Father of creation in prayer. Beyond that you could argue that sacraments and rituals attached an importance to certain words for their symbolic value. Certainly apostates incorporated superstition into Christianity thus bastardizing it but the text does not support those practices.

Again, Christianity does not attach importance to words in accomplishing difficult tasks, rather in having the faith and will to accomplish it.

Some Christian denominations do not attach special importance to words, but some do. The Catholic and Orthodox traditions, for example, require very specific formulae (with some leeway for translation) for the sacraments. Alteration of the formulae beyond the accepted norm renders the sacrament invalid. These are NOT symbolic. The words and actions are entelechial. It's one of the few places where the pre-Enlightenment theories of language has been retained.

This theory of language is very, very old, and we can see its roots in ancient Greece, even. It was common and accepted in biblical times, and continued to be so until the 1660s (roughly). In that way, it wasn't a corruption. The modern theory of symbolic (non-entelechial) language can be very solidly pinpointed to a specific movement in England.

We have little evidence for early Jesus-followers developing and using magical language, but we have solid evidence for its presence at the time and no evidence against. Indeed, John's identification of God as the Word is suggestive that he was familiar with entelechial language theories, and depending on whose history/theology you trust, it was used during baptisms and the feast of the Lord's Supper. It wasn't an alternate theory, it was THE theory of language.

You can argue, with the Enlightenment Anglicans, that understanding and using language in such a way is non-Christian (or simply ineffective and silly), but for the first 1700 years or so, it was just the way things were. It was Christian, it was devout, and it was okay with nearly every faction of Christianity. When you say "Christianity does this" or "Christianity does not do that" you have to be careful, because some do or don't, and if you exclude them as Christian, you give them grounds to do the same to you, which I know is a common irritation for many LDS folks.
 
Posted by MattP (Member # 10495) on :
 
quote:
The Catholic and Orthodox traditions, for example, require very specific formulae (with some leeway for translation) for the sacraments. Alteration of the formulae beyond the accepted norm renders the sacrament invalid.
And this is also true, at least in the popular mindset, for Mormons. I've heard the following conversation more than once:

Mormon 1: Did you see <movie with Mormons in it>? I can't believe they did a real <certain Mormon ordinance>!

Mormon 2: It's OK, they didn't say <a few words of that ordinance> so it wasn't real.

Perhaps it's not a doctrinally valid concern. I don't really know.
 
Posted by Samprimary (Member # 8561) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by BlackBlade:
True much of the time, but I also think that people who dabble seriously into communication with spirits do not seek out publicity or skeptical scientists.

They don't need to to change the fundamental nature of why they think they can communicate with spirits.
 
Posted by Christine (Member # 8594) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Eaquae Legit:
Some Christian denominations do not attach special importance to words, but some do. The Catholic and Orthodox traditions, for example, require very specific formulae (with some leeway for translation) for the sacraments. Alteration of the formulae beyond the accepted norm renders the sacrament invalid.

A sacrament is not the words, it's the deeds, and the words have changed over time. In fact, I think the only important thing for the sacrament of marriage, for example, is that two people agree to it. The words are highly negotiable. I remember the priest sitting down with my husband and I before we got married and explaining that particular sacrament to us and he summed up by saying that if anything went wrong on the day of the wedding, the only thing he cared about was that my husband and I showed up. Everything else he could deal with.

The religion may be bathed in ritual and tradition but varying the ritual definitely does not make a sacrament invalid if your heart is in the right place.

This is why I don't take communion, even for my mother's sake, when she manages to convince me to go to church nowadays. I don't believe it's the body of Christ and so to take it, even saying all the words and following all the tradition, still renders the sacrament invalid and disrespectful to those who do believe. It's what's in my heart, not my mouth, that matters.
 
Posted by scholarette (Member # 11540) on :
 
Christine- my brother in law will only go to a Catholic church if the mass is in Latin. For him, if it is not the specific Latin words, it is not the sacrament and not worth doing. He has a very traditional view of his religion, and while he is in the minority (based on what a hard time he has finding services that he doesn't consider too modern), there are still some Catholics who think that way.
 
Posted by Christine (Member # 8594) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by scholarette:
Christine- my brother in law will only go to a Catholic church if the mass is in Latin. For him, if it is not the specific Latin words, it is not the sacrament and not worth doing. He has a very traditional view of his religion, and while he is in the minority (based on what a hard time he has finding services that he doesn't consider too modern), there are still some Catholics who think that way.

But it is not the official stance of the church. I'm sure if you look hard enough you'll find Catholics who believe almost anything, but Eaquae Legit was suggesting that this was the stance of the church, which is not true.
 
Posted by BlackBlade (Member # 8376) on :
 
Eaquae Legit:
quote:
Some Christian denominations do not attach special importance to words, but some do. The Catholic and Orthodox traditions, for example, require very specific formulae (with some leeway for translation) for the sacraments. Alteration of the formulae beyond the accepted norm renders the sacrament invalid. These are NOT symbolic. The words and actions are entelechial. It's one of the few places where the pre-Enlightenment theories of language has been retained.
Sure, because words have meanings, and if your diction strays far from the accepted standard the essence of the ritual is also lost. It's why Humpty Dumpty in Alice in Wonderland would make a terrible priest.

I've looked up the word entelechial on dictionary.com and I did not find a very satisfactory definition, could you do me the favor of explaining what it means when you use it?

It is decidedly true that around Israel there certainly was alot of religious belief that revolved around the sorts of "spell casting" we are discussing. However, I think if you look at the text as a whole and recognize early Christians as a natural expansion from Judaism, a religion that doctrinally was hostile towards mysticism and sorcery, early Christians were not subscribers to magic. The word Magician comes from Magus which was the name of Simon Magus a man who believed in such things and asked to purchase the priesthood secrets from Peter because he thought the priesthood was similar to magic. He was turned down, and Peter then proceeds to explain how different the authority to act in the name of God is to some sort of system of key words that create super magical phenomenon.

Jesus himself says over and over, "All that ye see me do, ye can do also, if ye have faith." or in essence, "If you have faith the size of a mustard seed, you can ask the mountains to move, and they will move." It wasn't "If you get the rituals down pat, and can say them perfectly things you want to happen will happen.

I completely concede that within about 250 years Christianity was swallowed by other religions and then ate it's way out of their stomachs so that it was virtually indistinguishable from it's neighboring religions. But I do believe the Reformationists in large part were attempting to purify Christianity to it's original form when Christ instituted it.

I'm trying to be careful when using the word "Christianity does this not that" as I have gotten in trouble in the past for doing just that. When I use it here, I honestly try to divorce my Mormon sensibilities and discuss purely on Biblical terms so that I am not saying things that cause other Christians to think, "That's not in the Bible."

edit: If I think a point is hinted at in the Bible but explicitly stated in other scripture I try to cite so as to avoid confusion.

Just for the record, while I consider myself a Christian, and discuss my own religion with that term, I don't get bent out of shape if others feel the term is misused for Mormons, so long as it's done out of intellectual honesty and not malice.
 
Posted by dkw (Member # 3264) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by BlackBlade:

I completely concede that within about 250 years Christianity was swallowed by other religions and then ate it's way out of their stomachs so that it was virtually indistinguishable from it's neighboring religions.

Have you actually studied the history/teachings of the Catholic/Orthodox church of that time period? Or the neighboring religions? Or is the sentence I quoted just based on LDS teaching about "the apostacy"?
 
Posted by King of Men (Member # 6684) on :
 
So just where do all these mountains go, that are being moved by people with faith the size of a mustard seed? By this standard, it seems to me that we've had 2000 years of remarkably faithless Christians.
 
Posted by BlackBlade (Member # 8376) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by dkw:
quote:
Originally posted by BlackBlade:

I completely concede that within about 250 years Christianity was swallowed by other religions and then ate it's way out of their stomachs so that it was virtually indistinguishable from it's neighboring religions.

Have you actually studied the history/teachings of the Catholic/Orthodox church of that time period? Or the neighboring religions? Or is the sentence I quoted just based on LDS teaching about "the apostacy"?
I'd wager a combination of both. The LDS church does not do a very detailed look at The Apostasy in it's Sunday School classes, there are quite a few books published that discuss the issue including a book by the name The Great Apostasy by James E. Talmage.

There's alittle less than 2000 years worth of developments that you are asking about. I'm reasonably certain there are many interesting things of note you know that I do not. I still think that things as they were setup by Jesus and the original twelve apostles quickly changed in essence especially after they (the apostles) were dead. Many organizations have attempted to restore things to how they were back in 30ish AD, not just Mormonism, and those efforts were to a varying degree successful.
 
Posted by BlackBlade (Member # 8376) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by King of Men:
So just where do all these mountains go, that are being moved by people with faith the size of a mustard seed? By this standard, it seems to me that we've had 2000 years of remarkably faithless Christians.

Sorry for double posting, but moving mountains is not even cursorily on God's agenda as far as the scriptures outline. I don't really see much benefit in mountain moving, but you could always hang out at the Mount of Olives until Jesus splits it in two. In fact the only recorded instance of it happening that I can recall is in the Mormon canon, not the Bible.
 
Posted by dkw (Member # 3264) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by BlackBlade:
I still think that things as they were setup by Jesus and the original twelve apostles quickly changed in essence especially after they (the apostles) were dead. Many organizations have attempted to restore things to how they were back in 30ish AD, not just Mormonism, and those efforts were to a varying degree successful.

Irrelevant. I am specifically asking about your assertion that Christianity around 300 CE was "virtually indistinguishable from it's neighboring religions."
 
Posted by King of Men (Member # 6684) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by BlackBlade:
quote:
Originally posted by King of Men:
[qb] So just where do all these mountains go, that are being moved by people with faith the size of a mustard seed? By this standard, it seems to me that we've had 2000 years of remarkably faithless Christians.

Sorry for double posting, but moving mountains is not even cursorily on God's agenda as far as the scriptures outline.
You mean, apart from the Jesus aphorism that you just quoted? But even taking it as a metaphor, just what is it that the faithful to the correct religion have accomplished, which those of other religions or none have not done? Or perhaps Jesus is doing some sort of self-help "believe in your self-confidence" boosterism? I would expect a bit more of a self-proclaimed deity.

Either having faith in the true religion is helpful to getting things accomplished, or it is not. Which is it? And if you claim the former, what's the evidence?
 
Posted by BlackBlade (Member # 8376) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by dkw:
quote:
Originally posted by BlackBlade:
I still think that things as they were setup by Jesus and the original twelve apostles quickly changed in essence especially after they (the apostles) were dead. Many organizations have attempted to restore things to how they were back in 30ish AD, not just Mormonism, and those efforts were to a varying degree successful.

Irrelevant. I am specifically asking about your assertion that Christianity around 300 CE was "virtually indistinguishable from it's neighboring religions."
300CE was the hey day of the change I mentioned. When I mean indistinguishable from neighboring religions I do not mean there was no way to distinguish the two, I mean that in terms of superstitious practices it was finding ways to incorporate those beliefs in order to facilitate conversion.

It gobbled up gnosticism and that combined with folk religion to me was the embryo of what soon after became the proto-Catholic church.

That is how I understand the situation, you are more than welcome to help me get a better grasp of the situation.

----

KOM: You have the scriptures, they are open to you, you read what believers have described accomplishing.
 
Posted by King of Men (Member # 6684) on :
 
I must say that reading the propaganda of a particular sect does not strike me as the best way to measure their real accomplishments. Would you read a hagiography as a historical source? (I mean, for the actual events, not for "what did people think that saints ought to get up to.") Why are you suddenly so reluctant to point to what faith can do? "It's all fun and games until someone asks for evidence"? And let me also ask you this: Suppose it were shown that faith does not, in fact, help people in any measureable way; what would that imply for yours?
 
Posted by BlackBlade (Member # 8376) on :
 
KOM: Do you have any observational literature from the time period that the entire Bible was written? I'm alittle reluctant to talk about accomplishments germane to my religion as I need to decide if I'm willing to commit the time and energy necessary. Right now I'm leaning towards yes.

I'm not sure how you could demonstrate that faith does not help in any measurable way unless you managed to document every single action a person might take both with and without faith and observe success rates. I think it's demonstrably true that a person who believes they may succeed tend to succeed more than people who not believe.
 
Posted by Eaquae Legit (Member # 3063) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Christine:
quote:
Originally posted by Eaquae Legit:
Some Christian denominations do not attach special importance to words, but some do. The Catholic and Orthodox traditions, for example, require very specific formulae (with some leeway for translation) for the sacraments. Alteration of the formulae beyond the accepted norm renders the sacrament invalid.

A sacrament is not the words, it's the deeds, and the words have changed over time. In fact, I think the only important thing for the sacrament of marriage, for example, is that two people agree to it. The words are highly negotiable. I remember the priest sitting down with my husband and I before we got married and explaining that particular sacrament to us and he summed up by saying that if anything went wrong on the day of the wedding, the only thing he cared about was that my husband and I showed up. Everything else he could deal with.

The religion may be bathed in ritual and tradition but varying the ritual definitely does not make a sacrament invalid if your heart is in the right place.

This is why I don't take communion, even for my mother's sake, when she manages to convince me to go to church nowadays. I don't believe it's the body of Christ and so to take it, even saying all the words and following all the tradition, still renders the sacrament invalid and disrespectful to those who do believe. It's what's in my heart, not my mouth, that matters.

You can take all of the below as accounting for authorised translations.

Doctrinally, the words matter very, very much. A baptism without the words "I baptise you in the name of the Father, Son, and Holy Spirit" is not a baptism, pure and simple. Baptising in the name of the Son alone doesn't count, nor baptising in the name of the Father alone, nor does it count if one person says the words and another person pours the water. Anything other than a strict Trinitarian invocation AND the sprinkling (or immersing) or water and only water is invalid. This is why Mormons who convert to Catholicism will be rebaptised but Mennonites will not.

Same for the Eucharist. If anyone other than a priest says the words of the consecration, or if the priest says the words improperly, it does not count.

If someone told you differently, they are heterodox and not teaching authentic Catholic doctrine. It was true in the Middle Ages as the sacraments developed, and it is true today as they continue to develop. That is not to say intent is irrelevant. It is also very relevant (if far more complicated, IMO). But valid sacraments require both proper intent and proper form, and it has been this way, unchanged, for at least 1000 years (when my personal knowledge of sacramental theology peters out).

*******

BlackBlade, I'm using "entelechial" because I find when I use "effective" it doesn't convey the meaning I want it to. It means an active effectiveness, as in to create an effect. Its antonym would perhaps be "symbolic"? As an example (and I apologise if this is unclear), when a Catholic priest intones the Eucharistic formula, he's not just saying that the bread and wine are symbolic of flesh and blood; the words make it happen, they effect it. The words are entelechial. Does that help? It was something I struggled with when I first encountered it, but I've since found it a useful word to distinguish meaning from the commonplace "effective."

Happily, dkw is doing a better job than I could of addressing your other points. The fact that the Jesus-movement did not remain Jewish is well noted in the Bible, but it doesn't make the Jesus-followers of Acts unChristian. (And whatever else it's guilty of, gnosticism is not it. The Apostles' Creed fairly oozes anti-gnosticism.)
 
Posted by rivka (Member # 4859) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Eaquae Legit:
it has been this way, unchanged, for at least 1000 years (when my personal knowledge of sacramental theology peters out).

You look pretty good for someone of your advanced years.
 
Posted by Christine (Member # 8594) on :
 
Eaquae Legit: Um, you are aware that if you're driving down the street and see someone has gotten into a bad accident and there is no priest available that anyone can perform an emergency baptism or anointing of the sick. No need for water of any sort, holy or otherwise. Just a pure intent and a real need.

As far as who has told me this stuff: At least a dozen priests, nuns, and various Catholic school catechism teachers I've had over the years at 4 churches in two states. Plus, the ones my husband had growing up in a different state.

And if you really are over 100 years old then you age has worked against you. A great deal changed in the Catholic church at the convening of Vatican II in the 1960's. You should check it out. I don't think this changed at Vatican II, but since I was born in 1977 I'm not as familiar with what came before as you, who apparently were born in the early 1900's. [Smile]

[ October 28, 2009, 09:01 AM: Message edited by: Christine ]
 
Posted by kmbboots (Member # 8576) on :
 
Eaquae Legit and Christine are both partly right, in my opinion.
 
Posted by MrSquicky (Member # 1802) on :
 
Eaquae Legit and Christine are both pretty much fully right.

It's a question of context. In extraordinary contexts, certain strictures are loosened, but these are explicitly defined exceptions to the doctrinal requirements.
 
Posted by Eaquae Legit (Member # 3063) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Christine:
Eaquae Legit: Um, you are aware that if you're driving down the street and see someone has gotten into a bad accident and there is no priest available that anyone can perform an emergency baptism or anointing of the sick. No need for water of any sort, holy or otherwise. Just a pure intent and a real need.

As far as who has told me this stuff: At least a dozen priests, nuns, and various Catholic school catechism teachers I've had over the years at 4 churches in two states. Plus, the ones my husband had growing up in a different state.

And if you really are over 100 years old then you age has worked against you. A great deal changed in the Catholic church at the convening of Vatican II in the 1960's. You should check it out. I don't think this changed at Vatican II, but since I was born in 1977 I'm not as familiar with what came before as you, who apparently were born in the early 1900's. [Smile]

I'd give you some of the images I made of various manuals and penitentiaries, but the head archivist would hunt me down and slap me with a copyright infringement lawsuit so fast I wouldn't have time to say "mea culpa!" I'm not 1000 years old, but some of my books are. [Wink] I'm lazy, though, so I don't do much pre-Gratian, hence the 1000 years.

It is true that anyone can perform a baptism in emergencies. That has always been true, with only a few minor adjustments over the years. As for water, there's still some evolution happening, for example with premature babies in incubators. But seeing as spit counts as water, the circumstances in which you wouldn't have any water at hand at all are pretty few and far between. But even with such dire and unusual circumstances, it is uncertain enough that a conditional baptism may later be performed if the person survives.

I'm sorry for making such a big deal out of this. It's rare I get a chance on Hatrack to participate in something touching my specialism, and it gets me all jazzed up and excited. So hey, thanks!
 
Posted by BlackBlade (Member # 8376) on :
 
Eaquae Legit:
quote:
'm using "entelechial" because I find when I use "effective" it doesn't convey the meaning I want it to. It means an active effectiveness, as in to create an effect. Its antonym would perhaps be "symbolic"? As an example (and I apologise if this is unclear), when a Catholic priest intones the Eucharistic formula, he's not just saying that the bread and wine are symbolic of flesh and blood; the words make it happen, they effect it.
OK that helps me understand where you are coming from when you use that word. But looks at the way Jesus administered the Eucharist. He brake bread, blessed it, and said, "This is my body which is given for you: this do in remembrance of me." Luke 22:19. I'm partial to the notion that gospel ordinances ought to be done in a uniform manner, as people frequently tamper and change to suit their individual feelings and over time rituals can become completely different then their original intent. But what makes a combination of words have efficacy? Do the words themselves when spoken in a certain combination suddenly generate a result? I fully agree that a Christian ordinances must be done in the name of God, or it is to no effect, but that's not because I believe the phrase itself has power.

I don't like using the Eucharist as our platform as I (not to be disparaging to Catholics) believe transubstantiation is not correct. When protestants or Mormons take communion the bread and water is blessed and served to the congregation, and taken in remembrance of Christ's body and blood. I suppose you could argue that actually blessing bread and water and transforming bread and water are different ends by the same process.

But the fact we speak our words at our ordinances to me is a function of the fact that when words are spoken we listen, and it unifies the group in a single purpose. There is no impropriety in not speaking when praying, a mute could bless the sacrament themselves in their minds and then partake

quote:
Happily, dkw is doing a better job than I could of addressing your other points.
Near as I can tell she has questioned where I get my opinions on the matter, not much else yet. I respect her knowledge on Christian history very much.

quote:
The fact that the Jesus-movement did not remain Jewish is well noted in the Bible, but it doesn't make the Jesus-followers of Acts unChristian.
I'm not sure why you are saying this. I would say The Acts is a fantastic book in describing the early church before it became corrupted.

The Apostles creed does indeed not lend itself well to gnosticism, but the Nicene creed practically defines it. The 325AD version shows considerable leanings while the revised 381AD version is completely taken by it.
 
Posted by Noemon (Member # 1115) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by BlackBlade:
The Apostles creed does indeed not lend itself well to gnosticism, but the Nicene creed practically defines it.[/QB]

Wait, the Nicene creed defines gnosticism? How so? How are you defining gnosticism, BlackBlade?
 
Posted by rollainm (Member # 8318) on :
 
Tres,

In case you missed it, I'd like to second a curiosity in your distinction between mind and soul.
 
Posted by BlackBlade (Member # 8376) on :
 
Just a second folks, I'm getting my creeds mixed up. I need to revise some of the things I said. I'll add them as an edit to this post because I realize I've made some pretty erroneous statements.

Edit: The First Councel at Nicea to me shows that Gnosticism was already affecting belief in Christ as one of the major debates was whether Christ the Son of God was of the same substance of the father or a separate entity. The Arian controversy is essentially what I am talking about, the discussion of whether the son was coeternal with the father or created and of a different substance. The Homoiousians attempts at compromise to me demonstrates a decidedly Gnostic approach to the problem.

I then think the The Athanasian Creed carried the Nicene Creed to it's next iteration. All debate about the Homousians "same substance" approach is completely gone, and now it is boldly stated.

[ October 28, 2009, 11:51 AM: Message edited by: BlackBlade ]
 
Posted by fugu13 (Member # 2859) on :
 
I am very confused. You're asserting that identifying all three aspects of god as having one and the same perfect substance as being gnostic? Most forms of gnosticism are firmly dualistic, with two, separate gods of different substances, and one of the most important characteristics of Gnosticism is the idea of an imperfect, subordinate creator.

Gnosticism is far more like Arianism, which advocated a difference in substance and hierarchy in precedence among the god-head, than it is like the stance adopted in the Nicene creed (which didn't at all waver on Jesus being of the same substance -- I don't know where you got that from).
 
Posted by King of Men (Member # 6684) on :
 
quote:
I'm not sure how you could demonstrate that faith does not help in any measurable way unless you managed to document every single action a person might take both with and without faith and observe success rates. I think it's demonstrably true that a person who believes they may succeed tend to succeed more than people who do not believe.
Are you asserting that Jesus was not saying "Have faith in God" but rather "Have faith in yourself" or perhaps "in eventual success"? Because, as noted, self-help claptrap we do not need divine revelation for, people will insist on extracting it from the activities of spiders, if there's nothing more inspirational around. So, fine, if you wish to reduce Jesus' words to some sort of anodyne pep talk, then I won't dispute their truth. But in that case I suggest you do not quote them from him; people might mistake your faith for something no deeper than the beliefs of an average self-help junkie. On the other hand, if Jesus is asserting that having faith in the religious sense, and worshipping the correct god, is a path to great accomplishments, then that seems eminently measureable. Just for starters, you could check whether religious graduate students defend faster than non-religious ones.
 
Posted by dkw (Member # 3264) on :
 
I'm going to second Noemon's question of how you're defining gnosticism. Because the arian debates weren't about gnosticism. And Athanasius was a long way from being a gnostic.
 
Posted by fugu13 (Member # 2859) on :
 
Yeah, neither side in the Arian controversy was much like gnosticism at all, but if I had to identify one side as being more like gnosticism, it definitely wouldn't be the mainstream one.
 
Posted by Tresopax (Member # 1063) on :
 
quote:
Tres, are you making any particular effort to separate the words "mind" and "soul?" If you're merely trying to prove the existence of the mind, we already believe you, and you shouldn't be using such loaded terminology.
I think the two things are related but different. The mind is one's thoughts, feelings, memories, etc. The soul is the essential "self - and the entity that experiences those thoughts, feelings, and memories. I'm not sure there could be a mind without a soul, since I'm not sure what it would mean to have experiences without an experiencer.
 
Posted by King of Men (Member # 6684) on :
 
quote:
That's exactly my point: Software and hardware are distinct in spite of the fact that the software originates from the hardware. Therefore, two things can be distinct even if one originates entirely from the other.
This is language as a trap for the mind. You are just spinning words to try to make meaning. In what way does the software exist independent of the movement of electrons? It doesn't! You are just repeating "distinct, distinct, lalala" in an attempt to rescue your sense of self.
 
Posted by Tresopax (Member # 1063) on :
 
KoM, this is being precise.
Software on a computer doesn't exist independent of electrons, but it is distinct from those electrons. That's why you can move a piece of software from one computer to another without moving the actual physical electrons to the other computer too. Two things can be distinct without being independent from one another.
 
Posted by Raymond Arnold (Member # 11712) on :
 
While I can appreciate what you mean by those distinctions, the word soul is incredibly loaded, especially in this context where we are specifically talking about supernatural phenomenon.

There's a logical fallacy (I can't remember the proper term right now, someone with more debate training than I have can probably help me out) where one changes the definition of a word in the middle of an argument (or in a later argument), and continue to build off of points made with the original definition even though they're talking about completely different things.

In your case, you've made numerous statements in the past that strongly suggest you believe in the more traditional "mental component, eternal and separate from body" definition of soul. So when you start using the word way you are now, you give the impression (whether you intend to or not) that you may be setting yourself up to later employ a logical fallacy to make a point that isn't valid.

[ October 28, 2009, 01:10 PM: Message edited by: Raymond Arnold ]
 
Posted by King of Men (Member # 6684) on :
 
quote:
There's a logical fallacy where one changes the definition of a word in the middle of an argument (or in a later argument), and continue to build off of points made with the original definition even though they're talking about completely different things.
Equivocation.

quote:
Software on a computer doesn't exist independent of electrons, but it is distinct from those electrons.
This sense of distinctness is utterly useless, especially for arguing about souls. Suppose I put three pebbles in a triangle on my desk. If you want to argue that the "triangle-ness" is distinct from the actual pebbles, fine, but you are committing the logical fallacy of so bloody what? What consequences does this have? A "distinct" entity that is completely dependent on the things it is supposedly distinct from has no meaningful distinctness; it is at the absolute best a convenient shorthand - "the triangle" is shorter than "the three pebbles", "the mind" is shorter than "the pattern of electrons and neurons making up your brain". The actual universe does not contain three pebbles and a triangle; it contains three pebbles. Done. To reify high-level abstractions is classic magical thinking; you might as well argue that an aircraft is distinct from the atoms it consists of, and expect to be able to extract "aircraft-ness" from it by the right rituals.
 
Posted by Tresopax (Member # 1063) on :
 
quote:
In your case, you've made numerous statements in the past that strongly suggest you believe in the more traditional "mental component, eternal and separate from body" definition of soul. So when you start using the word way you are now, you give the impression (whether you intend to or not) that you may be setting yourself up to later employ a logical fallacy to make a point that isn't valid.
To be clear then, I believe the soul is a "mental" component (in the sense I just described) and is distinct from the body, and that I have strong evidence that such a thing exists. I also believe it is eternal and separable from the body, but I don't think I can prove either of those things with any earthly evidence, and I don't think they are properties true by definition for souls. (So, I could not make an argument like "We have souls, and souls are by definition eternal, therefore we have an afterlife." The second premise would be wrong.)

quote:
If you want to argue that the "triangle-ness" is distinct from the actual pebbles, fine, but you are committing the logical fallacy of so bloody what? What consequences does this have?
The consequences relate to what is possible. If the triangle-ness is not distinct from the actual pebbles, then if I remove the pebbles and replace them with paperclips, the triangle-ness would have to be gone since the pebbles are gone. But if the triangle-ness is distinct from the pebbles, then it is possible that I can remove the pebbles and replace them with paperclips, and keep the triangle-ness intact even though the pebbles are gone.

Similarly, if the soul were not distinct from the body, then the soul could not possibly exist after the body is gone. But if the soul is distinct from the body, then it is at least possible to talk about a soul existing separate from the body without automatically contradicting ourselves.
 
Posted by King of Men (Member # 6684) on :
 
You are now on the verge of being reasonable. Suppose I exactly duplicate your brain, down to quantum-mechanical wave functions (using, of course, my inexhaustible supply of handwavium to get around minor quibblers and obstructionists like that dilettante Heisenberg); are there now two "Tresopax souls" (or perhaps "Tresopax-nesses") in the universe?

I still think, however, you are using very bad language. If I have pebbles in a triangle, I can set up paperclips in the same sort of triangle; it does not follow that the triangle itself exists. You do not have to argue for a separate triangle-ness, you just have to make the observations "I measure this angle and that length, I measure this angle and that length... I get the same results for pebbles and paperclips". It doesn't follow that a triangle exists somewhere in Platonic idea-space! This is a canonical example of multiplying entities un-necessarily. There are pebbles or paperclips, and there are angles and distances, and within the human mind there is some pattern of electrons which we verbalise "triangle". But that's all electrons contained with our skulls. The actual universe does not have a little XML label saying "Triangle" attached to the pebbles, which disappears when you remove one.

[ October 28, 2009, 05:19 PM: Message edited by: King of Men ]
 
Posted by swbarnes2 (Member # 10225) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Tresopax:
To be clear then, I believe the soul is a "mental" component (in the sense I just described) and is distinct from the body, and that I have strong evidence that such a thing exists.

Really? Strong evidence of "souls" without bodies?

Okay, so what happened to the soul of Phineus Gage after his accident, and what strong evidence leads you to that conclusions?
 
Posted by Raymond Arnold (Member # 11712) on :
 
quote:
Really? Strong evidence of "souls" without bodies?
She's still using confusing wording but I think Iknow what she means. Regardless of whether my consciousness is actually dependent on my brain, my perception of my "self" is independent of my perception of the physical world. Given that ultimately, all I HAVE is my perceptions to determine what is real or not, it is very conceivable to me that the same "self" that I identify as could somehow exist without my body.

Taking the paperclips and pebbles and triangles and electrons metaphors that have been tossed around so far: Yes you could duplicate my brain and there would effectively be a second Raymond "Soul" in existence. What's more, you could probably create a complex computer system (not biological at all) that also perfectly simulated the self-ness of Raymond Arnold. The self-ness of Raymond Arnold may be dependent on physical objects but not any particular physical object.

To the universe as a whole, it doesn't matter that both selfs are labeled Raymond Arnold. But it matters a great deal to the Raymond Arnolds in question. Considering that as far as I know the universe itself isn't conscious at all, the existence of pebbles and molecules and physical human bodies are far less "important" than the existence of Tres-defined Souls. (Important being defined as "how much somebody actually cares". All the physical stuff in the universe would be pretty worthless without some form of consciousness to appreciate it)
 
Posted by Glenn Arnold (Member # 3192) on :
 
This thread is going to take a Dollhouse turn, here, pretty quickly, I think.

I'm more than comfortable with the idea that a soul is the software that defines an individual's identity. But you take a serious risk trying to explain that since software can be moved from one computer to another without moving the electrons, the soul exists independent of the body. We do this by copying the software, not by moving it.

If you were to move a human soul to another receptacle by copying it, it wouldn't still be the same soul. Assuming the original still resides in its original body, it would be pretty upset if the new copy decided to cause it pain. (See "The Prestige"). This isn't the same concept as the eternal soul that supposedly exists independent of the body.
 
Posted by King of Men (Member # 6684) on :
 
As a side note, the expression "move the electrons" is in any case meaningless. All you can do is copy the pattern of electron wavefunctions, with or without destruction of the original.
 
Posted by Samprimary (Member # 8561) on :
 
The word 'evidence' is really getting abused here.
 
Posted by Eaquae Legit (Member # 3063) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by BlackBlade:
[QB] Eaquae Legit:
quote:
'm using "entelechial" because I find when I use "effective" it doesn't convey the meaning I want it to. It means an active effectiveness, as in to create an effect. Its antonym would perhaps be "symbolic"? As an example (and I apologise if this is unclear), when a Catholic priest intones the Eucharistic formula, he's not just saying that the bread and wine are symbolic of flesh and blood; the words make it happen, they effect it.
OK that helps me understand where you are coming from when you use that word. But looks at the way Jesus administered the Eucharist. He brake bread, blessed it, and said, "This is my body which is given for you: this do in remembrance of me." Luke 22:19. I'm partial to the notion that gospel ordinances ought to be done in a uniform manner, as people frequently tamper and change to suit their individual feelings and over time rituals can become completely different then their original intent. But what makes a combination of words have efficacy? Do the words themselves when spoken in a certain combination suddenly generate a result? I fully agree that a Christian ordinances must be done in the name of God, or it is to no effect, but that's not because I believe the phrase itself has power.
Yes, the combination of words produce the result, in the right circumstances. Since I'm not a priest, the Eucharistic invocation is ineffective if I say it. I've not been ordained to that office. Different situations require different words, and in the modern period, it's really only with Catholic and Orthodox sacraments and a handful of Protestant ordinances that it's even a question. But it used to be more widespread, potentially relevant in any situation if the occultist was a skilled enough rhetorician and orator.

quote:
I don't like using the Eucharist as our platform as I (not to be disparaging to Catholics) believe transubstantiation is not correct. When protestants or Mormons take communion the bread and water is blessed and served to the congregation, and taken in remembrance of Christ's body and blood. I suppose you could argue that actually blessing bread and water and transforming bread and water are different ends by the same process.
I know. [Smile] But the question of who is right or wrong (or who is apostate) is not something I'm keen to get into here. My original post was directed at the assertion that Christians never cast spells or invoked anything but the name of God. Historically, they did. They followed Jesus, they were wholly committed to Christianity, and their attempts were based in no small part on the gospel of John. There was no contradiction. Making all magic based on demonic powers is a relatively recent idea. If we can recognise each other as Christians today despite our differences in theology, then we are forced to admit the Christian-ness of pre-Enlightenment people as well.

quote:
But the fact we speak our words at our ordinances to me is a function of the fact that when words are spoken we listen, and it unifies the group in a single purpose. There is no impropriety in not speaking when praying, a mute could bless the sacrament themselves in their minds and then partake.
In the past, people had problems thinking a (pre-lingual) mute could HAVE verbal thought. Since the development of signed languages, we've learned that deaf/mute people can and do think, and sign language is just as valid as spoken language.

I'm real sorry. I promise I will come back to this, but I have to get up early tomorrow so I'm going to cut it short for now. Hope there's something useful in there, for now!
 
Posted by Tresopax (Member # 1063) on :
 
quote:
If I have pebbles in a triangle, I can set up paperclips in the same sort of triangle; it does not follow that the triangle itself exists. You do not have to argue for a separate triangle-ness, you just have to make the observations "I measure this angle and that length, I measure this angle and that length... I get the same results for pebbles and paperclips". It doesn't follow that a triangle exists somewhere in Platonic idea-space! This is a canonical example of multiplying entities un-necessarily.
You brought up the "triangle-ness" example. I'm not sure if triangle-ness exists or where it exists if it does - I'm just going with your example.

But what I am saying is that a "triangle-ness" that is identical to a set of stones is far more limited (as far as what is logically possible about it) than a "triangle-ness" that is distinct from those stones. If it is identical to the stones, it must have exactly the same and no additional properties as the stones do. If it is distinct from the stones, even if it is dependent on the stones, there is at least the logical possibility that it could exist indepently and have properties that the stones do not have.

quote:
Suppose I exactly duplicate your brain, down to quantum-mechanical wave functions (using, of course, my inexhaustible supply of handwavium to get around minor quibblers and obstructionists like that dilettante Heisenberg); are there now two "Tresopax souls" (or perhaps "Tresopax-nesses") in the universe?
I'm not sure how souls come into existence, or what would happen if you duplicated my brain. I would presume both of the new people would have separate souls, and both would act and think like me.

quote:
I'm more than comfortable with the idea that a soul is the software that defines an individual's identity. But you take a serious risk trying to explain that since software can be moved from one computer to another without moving the electrons, the soul exists independent of the body. We do this by copying the software, not by moving it.
Just to be clear, I wasn't suggesting that souls are analogous to software, and I don't believe a soul can be copied in the way software can. Software (and hardware) came up as one of several examples I gave of things that are dependent on one another yet are distinct from one another.

quote:
Really? Strong evidence of "souls" without bodies?
I said I think I have strong evidence of souls, which I discussed earlier. I do not have strong earthly evidence that those souls can exist without bodies, although I believe they can.
 
Posted by swbarnes2 (Member # 10225) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Tresopax:
quote:
Really? Strong evidence of "souls" without bodies?
I said I think I have strong evidence of souls, which I discussed earlier.
You defined souls as being separate from the body.

Your strong evidence therefore must include evidence that they possess the properties you define them as possessing.

So where's that evidence?

Just start with Phineus Gage, please. What does your strong evidence tell you about the state of his soul after his accident?
 
Posted by Tresopax (Member # 1063) on :
 
Post from Oct. 26, 11:15 am:
quote:
Being distinct from the body is part of my definition. Being separable from the body is not. See the above example of the auia, which is a physical thing. Or for instance, Aristotle did not believe the soul was separable from the body. ("The soul does not exist without a body and yet is not itself a kind of body. For it is not a body, but something which belongs to a body, and for this reason exists in a body, and in a body of such-and-such a kind" -Aristotle)

I do believe the soul is likely separable from the body, but I don't think it by definition must be.


 
Posted by TomDavidson (Member # 124) on :
 
So you are essentially defining "soul" here as a "sense of self?"
 
Posted by King of Men (Member # 6684) on :
 
quote:
But what I am saying is that a "triangle-ness" that is identical to a set of stones is far more limited (as far as what is logically possible about it) than a "triangle-ness" that is distinct from those stones. If it is identical to the stones, it must have exactly the same and no additional properties as the stones do. If it is distinct from the stones, even if it is dependent on the stones, there is at least the logical possibility that it could exist indepently and have properties that the stones do not have.
Very well, you have identified a testable consequence of your theory. I suggest, however, that the experimental evidence falsifies it. In particular, if you mess with the brain, you mess with the "soul" in your sense of the word; there is no way to make a change in the "soul" without making a change in the brain, and vice-versa. These are not the properties of distinct objects.
 
Posted by swbarnes2 (Member # 10225) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Tresopax:
Post from Oct. 26, 11:15 am:
quote:
Being distinct from the body is part of my definition. Being separable from the body is not. See the above example of the auia, which is a physical thing. Or for instance, Aristotle did not believe the soul was separable from the body. ("The soul does not exist without a body and yet is not itself a kind of body. For it is not a body, but something which belongs to a body, and for this reason exists in a body, and in a body of such-and-such a kind" -Aristotle)

I do believe the soul is likely separable from the body, but I don't think it by definition must be.


Distinct is not the same as separate. My mistake for misreading you.

But quoting Aristotle is not "strong evidence" of anything, except what Aristotle thought.

What does the "strong evidence" of Phineas Gage's life tell you about the state of his soul after his accident?

Talking about triangles and stones is not "strong evidence". Strong evidence would be like "Examination with this scientifically based soulmeter shows that the souls of people with brain injuries remain unchanged". Or "scientific research has shown that it is impossible to give anyone sensations or perceptions (such as long term sensory deprivation) that would cause them to alter or lose their mental self-awareness."

That would be "strong evidence". Do you have any of it?
 
Posted by Tresopax (Member # 1063) on :
 
quote:
So you are essentially defining "soul" here as a "sense of self?"
Not "sense of". It'd be your actual self, in the mental sense. If all you had was a sense of self, but no actual self, I would think that meant you had no soul.

quote:
I suggest, however, that the experimental evidence falsifies it. In particular, if you mess with the brain, you mess with the "soul" in your sense of the word; there is no way to make a change in the "soul" without making a change in the brain, and vice-versa. These are not the properties of distinct objects.
How did you determine that you can't change one without the other? At a minimum, I'd think there are small ways to change the brain that would not effect my "self" or my soul at all.

quote:
That would be "strong evidence". Do you have any of it?
You seem to be limiting "strong evidence" in ways that I am not. So, I don't think I have what you are terming strong evidence. You aren't going to find much clear evidence for the existence of something subjective and nonphysical if you limit what counts as evidence solely to objective, physical scientific evidence. For instance, I have no idea about the state of Phineas Gage's soul - I have no idea how I'd measure it, since I am not him.

I do have what I explained on page 1 of this thread - my own internal observations that I experience things, and that there is a "self" experiencing them.
 
Posted by TomDavidson (Member # 124) on :
 
quote:
If all you had was a sense of self, but no actual self, I would think that meant you had no soul.
What is your strong evidence for your self, as opposed to a sense of self?
 
Posted by Tresopax (Member # 1063) on :
 
Well, the example of the person with a sense of self but no actual self is essentially impossible. If you had a sense of self but no actual self, who/what is possessing that sense?
 
Posted by King of Men (Member # 6684) on :
 
If you have a sense of sight, but no self, who or what is possessing that sense? Now you're getting mired in words again. You have no idea what a 'self' is separate from your sense of it, and here you are trying to reason about it!
 
Posted by swbarnes2 (Member # 10225) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Tresopax:
quote:
That would be "strong evidence". Do you have any of it?
You seem to be limiting "strong evidence" in ways that I am not. So, I don't think I have what you are terming strong evidence.
Okay, so what do you term "strong evidence"?

Why don't you present that, and then everyone can decide if what you think is strong really is strong.

quote:
You aren't going to find much clear evidence for the existence of something subjective and nonphysical if you limit what counts as evidence solely to objective, physical scientific evidence.
Are you backtracking away from "strong" to "clear"? If so, you should admit that up front, rather than doing it on the sly, hoping no one will notice that you wrote "strong" before.

quote:
For instance, I have no idea about the state of Phineas Gage's soul - I have no idea how I'd measure it, since I am not him.
But what does your "strong evidence" tell you? What good is it if it tells you nothing about actual cases?

quote:
I do have what I explained on page 1 of this thread - my own internal observations that I experience things, and that there is a "self" experiencing them.
So your "strong evidence" is your own subjective experience? Sorry, but the strong evidence of reality testing shows us we could drastically alter your sense of self with mere chemicals that act on the brain.
 
Posted by Tresopax (Member # 1063) on :
 
"Strong evidence" is any information a person has that allows that person to judge a given conclusion much more likely to be true than alternative conclusions.

Yes, my strong evidence is my own subjective experience, as I explained before. Yes, you could drastically alter my sense of self with chemicals, but that doesn't in any way suggest I don't have a self or that I don't have a soul. You could give me chemicals that would drastically alter my sense of what happened yesterday too, but that doesn't mean yesterday didn't exist.
 
Posted by swbarnes2 (Member # 10225) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Tresopax:
"Strong evidence" is any information a person has that allows that person to judge a given conclusion much more likely to be true than alternative conclusions.

My point is, you used the term "strong" to communicate a certain degree of certainty to others. Do you honestly think that your personal subjective evidence is "strong" in the eyes of other people?

quote:
Yes, you could drastically alter my sense of self with chemicals, but that doesn't in any way suggest I don't have a self or that I don't have a soul.
But having a "sense of self" isn't strong evidence that you have a soul either. Your perceptions and sensations are highly malleable, remember?

quote:
You could give me chemicals that would drastically alter my sense of what happened yesterday too, but that doesn't mean yesterday didn't exist.
So you would consider your misbelief "strong evidence" that yesterday didn't happen, correct?

In which case, why do you consider your subjective impressions "strong evidence" of anything?

And given that everyone else knows how unreliable subjective feelings are, why would you describe them as "strong evidence" to others? Why should they consider your subjective feelings "strong evidence" of anything?
 
Posted by King of Men (Member # 6684) on :
 
And... off we go again into private languages that look a bit like English!

quote:
You could give me chemicals that would drastically alter my sense of what happened yesterday too, but that doesn't mean yesterday didn't exist.
Indeed, but there you would be, arguing that you had "strong evidence" that it didn't!
 
Posted by Tresopax (Member # 1063) on :
 
quote:
Do you honestly think that your personal subjective evidence is "strong" in the eyes of other people?
No, I think my personal subjective evidence is "strong" in the sense of telling *me* what is actually true. If it is not convincing in the eyes of other people, that does not make it weaker evidence. If Superman tells Lois Lane that he is really Clark Kent, that is strong evidence to Lois Lane that Superman is Clark Kent, even if nobody else believes it and even if if everybody else thinks Superman never told Lois Lane such a thing. Evidence doesn't need to be communicable to others to be convincing to you.

Nobody else can experience my consciousness, so what I experience is not going to be that convincing to others, unless they take me on my word. However, I don't believe I am unique in this way. I suspect that if you and others examine yourselves, you will see the same thing that I do - that you too experience existence. I can't know that for sure, since I can't see into your consciousness, but I don't believe I'm the only person in the world who has actual experiences. So, if you want to be convinced by what I'm arguing, I'm relying on you to look into your own experiences and see if what I'm saying is true. Otherwise my evidence is only going to be "strong" to me.

And yes, it is possible that someone put certain chemicals in my brain to confuse me and make me think things that aren't true. It is also possible that I hallucinated during science class, and all the scientific facts I believe in are made up. It is possible that I live in The Matrix, and all of reality is a fiction. It is possible I'm just crazy. All of the above things are possible, but I consider them extremely unlikely. That's why I say I have "strong evidence" instead of "absolute 100% proof".
 
Posted by swbarnes2 (Member # 10225) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Tresopax:
quote:
Do you honestly think that your personal subjective evidence is "strong" in the eyes of other people?
No, I think my personal subjective evidence is "strong" in the sense of telling *me* what is actually true.
Ah, so you are a relativist? There's stuff that's true for you, and stuff that's true for other people, and there's no common ground between everyone's truths?

If you had said "I strongly believe this to be true based on my own subjective and not always trustworthy perceptions", that would have been honest and clearly gotten across what you meant.

But calling your own private and admittably unreliable feelings "evidence", and "strong evidence" at that, is an abuse of the term. The same way that saying that since "faith" properly describes the conclusion that the sun will rise tomorrow proves that non-religious people have "faith" is an abuse of the term.

It's a logical fallacy, and worse yet, a dishonesty, to use words knowing that you mean something completely different from what other people mean by them.

And that's exactly what you do when you try and pass off your own admittedly unreliable feelings and perceptions as "strong evidence" of the existance of anything (other than your perceptions and feelings).

quote:
Evidence doesn't need to be communicable to others to be convincing to you.
If you are convinced of something, and you can't convince anyone else that you are right, it's far more likely that they are right, and you are wrong. You, frankly, are just not that magically special, that you know the truth that others can't perceive. Most likely, if they can't perceive it, it's because it's not there.

quote:
I suspect that if you and others examine yourselves, you will see the same thing that I do - that you too experience existence. I can't know that for sure, since I can't see into your consciousness, but I don't believe I'm the only person in the world who has actual experiences.
Yes, as a function of my working brain. Even slightly alter my brain, and all my preceptions and sensations, thoughts, memories, feelings, behaviors, change.

None of this is "strong evidence" that any of that is distinct from my brain. In fact, its quite the opposite.

quote:
Otherwise my evidence is only going to be "strong" to me.
Explain again the "strong evidence" you have that your mind, or soul, or whatever, is distinct from your brain? I don't believe I've seen that. In fact, I have what you'd call "strong evidence" that you haven't presented any thing in that line yet.

quote:
It is also possible that I hallucinated during science class, and all the scientific facts I believe in are made up.
But there is also real evidence that all of those facts are true. Not your "strong because I feel it", but "strong because empirical testing could falsify them, but the empirical data supports their accuracy".

Can you really not see the difference? Everyone else does.
 
Posted by Tresopax (Member # 1063) on :
 
quote:
If you are convinced of something, and you can't convince anyone else that you are right, it's far more likely that they are right, and you are wrong.
How many people who believed they have a soul have you been able to convince they don't?

quote:
Explain again the "strong evidence" you have that your mind, or soul, or whatever, is distinct from your brain?
I can see its true by observation, in the same way you know the music produced by a radio is a distinct thing from the radio itself. The soul and brain seems to have very different properties; the soul is an indivisible subjective mental thing that has nonphysical experiences, whereas the brain is an objective physical thing that can be broken down into parts.
 
Posted by Samprimary (Member # 8561) on :
 
Urgh. Tresopax, the way you are using the word 'evidence' has no relation to the definition of evidence. You could say you had a 'suspicion,' 'belief,' or 'conviction' in possession of a soul. You do not have any evidence.

And no, handing us an English to Tresopax translation is bypassing the issue entirely. This is the worst way to ply a semantic argument or any type of argument. It's redefining words entirely in order to float an argument on rhetoric.
 
Posted by Tresopax (Member # 1063) on :
 
By evidence I mean what you and most average people mean by evidence. I'm not talking about a "suspicion" or "belief" or "conviction" I have. I'm talking about proof - repeatable, consistent proof that I believe both you and I are equally capable of observing. I'm talking about definition #1 provided by dictionary.com:

–noun 1. that which tends to prove or disprove something; ground for belief; proof.

That is exactly what I mean when I say I have evidence of the soul.
 
Posted by King of Men (Member # 6684) on :
 
I accept that you have evidence that you have an experience of self; but you have zero evidence that this is separate from your brain, and considerable evidence that it isn't. If your sense of self were not separate from the brain, how would you know? You havent felt both alternatives and therefore have no means of judging between them by plain sense information.
 
Posted by swbarnes2 (Member # 10225) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Tresopax:
By evidence I mean what you and most average people mean by evidence. I'm not talking about a "suspicion" or "belief" or "conviction" I have. I'm talking about proof - repeatable, consistent proof that I believe both you and I are equally capable of observing. I'm talking about definition #1 provided by dictionary.com:

–noun 1. that which tends to prove or disprove something; ground for belief; proof.

No you aren't. Your subjective feelings don't prove anything. They are terrible grounds for believing things, as your yourself admitted, since your brain can be manipulated into sensing and feeling all kinds of false things.

Your feelings are proof of your feelings, and absolutely nothing more.

But if you wish to prove me wrong, it would be simple.

Present the "strong evidence" that your soul is distinct from your brain. You said you have it.

Present it, and everyone will judge if you were equivocating or lying when you said your "evidence" was "strong".
 
Posted by King of Men (Member # 6684) on :
 
He already did this, such as it is:

quote:
Experience itself isn't physical by nature, in a way similar to how I know that the number seven is not made of clay. That's just not what it is.
As noted, there is no direct way of telling physical experience from non-physical; whichever theory is correct, nobody has ever experienced the other kind. It follows that there is simply no way to distinguish between them based on sense information alone. How do you distinguish between red and humfinor, based only on the output of your optical nerve?

Edit: I skipped a step there; humfinor is the colour that looks exactly like red unless you have the gene humf13, in which case it looks like red except for being different in a way that's just as easy to explain as the difference between red and blue. The gene is now extinct in humans. Lest anyone think this is a purely theoretical question, I remind you of the distinction between grass green and fence green, which we had a discussion about here a while ago. I can't find it now, but apparently some people distinguish two kinds of green due to having extra colour receptors in their eyes. Tres's assertion is equivalent to saying that he can tell the difference between grass and fence green, having only experienced one kind of green all his life. No you can't.

[ November 02, 2009, 01:47 PM: Message edited by: King of Men ]
 
Posted by Tresopax (Member # 1063) on :
 
quote:
I accept that you have evidence that you have an experience of self; but you have zero evidence that this is separate from your brain, and considerable evidence that it isn't.
I agree that I don't have a lot of evidence that the soul is ever separate from the brain, outside religious sources.

quote:
Your feelings are proof of your feelings, and absolutely nothing more.
Exactly - my feelings are proof of MY feelings, which demonstrates that there is a "me" that is experiencing those feelings.

quote:
Present the "strong evidence" that your soul is distinct from your brain. You said you have it.
As I said, the "self" that experiences my feelings and thoughts seems to have radically different properties from the brain, meaning it a distinct thing. This is just a very basic part of the direct observation I make, and which you can make. You recognize this distinction yourself when you say things like "subjective feelings don't prove anything". The brain is an objective, physical things which is capable of serving as evidence in the same way any physical object could. The fact that you distinguish my feelings as subjective and incapable of being proof in the same way shows that you are treating them as a thing distinct from the brain and with different properties.

quote:
As noted, there is no direct way of telling physical experience from non-physical; whichever theory is correct, nobody has ever experienced the other kind. It follows that there is simply no way to distinguish between them based on sense information alone. How do you distinguish between red and humfinor, based only on the output of your optical nerve?
How would a person who has the humf13 gene prove to a person without that gene that humfinor looks different from red? It's not a theory that he proves. Rather, it's a direct observation. He can see without doubt that the experience of humfinor is fundamentally different for him than the experience of red. That is evidence enough for himself. But to prove it to someone else, he needs to rely on the other person being able to experience it for themselves.
 
Posted by swbarnes2 (Member # 10225) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Tresopax:

quote:
Your feelings are proof of your feelings, and absolutely nothing more.
Exactly - my feelings are proof of MY feelings, which demonstrates that there is a "me" that is experiencing those feelings.
I'm sorry, but putting a word in all caps isn't evidence, strong or otherwise.

Where was the "me" of Phineas Gage after his accident?

quote:
As I said, the "self" that experiences my feelings and thoughts seems to have radically different properties from the brain, meaning it a distinct thing.
The properties of your feelings are that they are the product of chemical and physical processes in your brain. How does this make them distinct from that brain?

If your beliefs are "strong evidence" of things, and you already admitted that your brain can be manipulated into believing all kinds of false things. Which makes it not strong evidence.

So furnish the strong evidence, please.

quote:
The brain is an objective, physical things which is capable of serving as evidence in the same way any physical object could. The fact that you distinguish my feelings as subjective and incapable of being proof in the same way shows that you are treating them as a thing distinct from the brain and with different properties.
Just because the brain is a physical object doesn't make it "strong evidence" of anything you wish.

And the properties I am ascribing to your feelings is that they are chemical and physical processes of your brain. And I really have strong evidence that this is the case, as your feelings can be changed with chemical and physical changes to your brain.

quote:
How would a person who has the humf13 gene prove to a person without that gene that humfinor looks different from red?
You can't possibly think that it really is impossible to demonstrate to a color-blind person that red and green really are different colors.

quote:
He can see without doubt that the experience of humfinor is fundamentally different for him than the experience of red. That is evidence enough for himself.
You honestly think this? That color blind people figure "Well, red and green look the same to me, that's 'strong evidence' that they are"?
 
Posted by King of Men (Member # 6684) on :
 
quote:
How would a person who has the humf13 gene prove to a person without that gene that humfinor looks different from red? It's not a theory that he proves. Rather, it's a direct observation. He can see without doubt that the experience of humfinor is fundamentally different for him than the experience of red. That is evidence enough for himself. But to prove it to someone else, he needs to rely on the other person being able to experience it for themselves.
Make cards coloured red and humfinor. Offer them to the humfinor-blind person to shuffle. Sort them into red and humfinor, and let the humfinor-blind person observe that you can do this consistently.

Figure out what is the actual property that makes something humfinor rather than red - say it's the polarisation of the reflected light - and make a machine that can reliably tell the difference.

Really, now, this is not difficult.

quote:
As I said, the "self" that experiences my feelings and thoughts seems to have radically different properties from the brain, meaning it a distinct thing.
You mean, other than being damaged exactly as the brain is damaged?
 
Posted by Tresopax (Member # 1063) on :
 
quote:
So furnish the strong evidence, please.
I've explained the strong evidence I have, and I don't want this to be just me repeating myself over and over. I cannot "furnish" the evidence because the internal experiences of my mind can't be taken out and thrown on the table for you to see. So, if you are interested in finding out whether your should agree with me, you have to look into your own mind and see if you see what I see. Judge for yourself, and either agree or disagree.

quote:
You can't possibly think that it really is impossible to demonstrate to a color-blind person that red and green really are different colors.
This depends on how trusting the color-blind person is willing to be when other people tell him that red and green look different to them. If he insisted that no, red and green are the same identical experience, what proof could you furnish that they are different experiences for you? You could get a bunch of people and show how each of them can distinguish "green" objects from "red" objects, and that would prove that people can somehow distinguish between the two. But if he was stubborn and still insisted that the two colors produce an identical visual experience and therefore are the same color, then you are stuck.
 
Posted by King of Men (Member # 6684) on :
 
Well yes, you can't argue with a nitwit. That doesn't mean you should make nitwittery the basis of your ontology. Of course it's possible to insist that, no, your sense impressions are the only evidence you'll accept. Or you can, you know, stop being an idiot and actually look at the dang evidence.
 
Posted by Raymond Arnold (Member # 11712) on :
 
I think everyone's arguing against the wrong point here. Tres is basically saying "I think therefore I am," and is using a definition of "distinct" that isn't what most of the rest of the world uses. It's not a matter of she's wrong, it's a matter of "Okay, so what?"
 
Posted by Tresopax (Member # 1063) on :
 
quote:
Make cards coloured red and humfinor. Offer them to the humfinor-blind person to shuffle. Sort them into red and humfinor, and let the humfinor-blind person observe that you can do this consistently.
See above post. This tells you that the person can somehow distinguish humfinor from red, but not whether or not the experience looks different from red.

quote:
You mean, other than being damaged exactly as the brain is damaged?
This isn't true. If there's internal bleeding in my brain, there isn't internal bleeding in my consciousness? I'm not even sure what it would mean to say there's internal bleeding in my consciousness.

Usually an injury to the brain causes some different effect to the mind. For instance, if you feel dizzy, that doesn't mean there's physical dizziness located somewhere in your brain. It means something physical happened in your brain that has triggered dizziness in your mind.
 
Posted by King of Men (Member # 6684) on :
 
quote:
This tells you that the person can somehow distinguish humfinor from red, but not whether or not the experience looks different from red.
[Roll Eyes] Absent gods help us. How else are you suggesting humfinor be distinguished from red, other than having a different sense impression?

quote:
Usually an injury to the brain causes some different effect to the mind. For instance, if you feel dizzy, that doesn't mean there's physical dizziness located somewhere in your brain. It means something physical happened in your brain that has triggered dizziness in your mind.
*Feels overwhelming urge to slap some dang sense into Tres*

Dizziness is a movement of electrons and/or chemicals which is different from the usual movement, leading to a different set of nerve commands and feedbacks. This is exactly and precisely a "physical dizziness in the brain".
 
Posted by Tresopax (Member # 1063) on :
 
quote:
Tres is basically saying "I think therefore I am," and is using a definition of "distinct" that isn't what most of the rest of the world uses. It's not a matter of she's wrong, it's a matter of "Okay, so what?"
Firstly, I'm not a "she". [Wink]

Secondly, "distinct" isn't my term; this is how the term is used in metaphysics. It is essentially "not identical to".

Thirdly, yes, I am saying "I think therefore I am" and then elaborating that I must be a thinking thing. Although its actually more like "I experience thought therefore I am", and thus I am an experiencing thing.
 
Posted by Tresopax (Member # 1063) on :
 
quote:
Well yes, you can't argue with a nitwit. That doesn't mean you should make nitwittery the basis of your ontology.
Yeah, but that's my trouble here. I'm being asked to provide a level of evidence equivalent to what the nitwit is demanding in that example. I can distinguish easily between mental and physical things, consistently. I just can't prove the difference exists to someone who's very intent on asserting there is no difference.
 
Posted by King of Men (Member # 6684) on :
 
Ok, design the experiment that lets you distinguish between mental and physical.
 
Posted by scifibum (Member # 7625) on :
 
"I can distinguish easily between mental and physical things, consistently."

You've offered absolutely no hint of how you are drawing the distinction, other than an assertion that you are experiencing things and attributing the fact of your ability to experience things to a soul that is distinct from your physical body.

It would be more valid to attribute the experience to your physical body, in the absence of something more that suggests separate entities, if you give any weight to Occam.

You should probably retract the claim that you have strong evidence for the soul, and instead say you choose to believe that your soul is what does the experiencing, despite the lack of any actual evidence.
 
Posted by King of Men (Member # 6684) on :
 
Actually, before the experiment can be designed, it is necessary to demonstrate it is meaningful. A color-blind person understands the difference between black and white; other differences of the same kind can be meaningful. But this is not the case for mental and physical. Suppose I prick your finger. Clearly there is a physical effect: There is a needle going into the skin, nerves are activated, chemicals flow in the brain, you say "Ouch". We have only your assertion that there is something else, which you decide to label "mental". If you cannot produce it in the absence of the physical effects, why assert that it is there? The physical stuff within your brain is the experience.
 
Posted by Raymond Arnold (Member # 11712) on :
 
quote:
Firstly, I'm not a "she".
My bad. [Embarrassed] At some point you posted something that I somehow made the wrong connection from.
 
Posted by swbarnes2 (Member # 10225) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Tresopax:
quote:
So furnish the strong evidence, please.
I've explained the strong evidence I have,
Your "strong evidence" would convince you that yesterday never happened, if we manipulated your brain to think that. You already admitted that.

Are you honestly saying that when you use the term "stong evidence" you

1) mean "some observation with only a tangential connection to physical reality, that is very unreliable at telling us what the physical world really is like"

and

2)honestly expect other people to understand that you mean that when you use the term "strong evidence"

Because it's not honest to use the term to refer to your subjective feelings unless you hold both of the above clauses true.

quote:
and I don't want this to be just me repeating myself over and over.
You could just admit that when you said "strong evidence" you were exagerating for effect. Admit that you used the world "evidence" because it makes it sound like there is objective, physical, undenably real support for your belief (becuase that's what evidence means), but that this isn't the case.

quote:
So, if you are interested in finding out whether your should agree with me, you have to look into your own mind and see if you see what I see. Judge for yourself, and either agree or disagree.
But you haven't told me what to look for! All you've done is capitalize the word MY and said "See, that proves I have a soul distinct from my body".

You can't even list a single known property of this soul, so how will I know what it looks like?

quote:
quote:
You can't possibly think that it really is impossible to demonstrate to a color-blind person that red and green really are different colors.
This depends on how trusting the color-blind person is willing to be when other people tell him that red and green look different to them.
Good grief, your attempt to defend your ludicrous argument is leading you to look very stupid.

A color blind person could do a biological experiment, and see that in people with wild-type color cones, each cone reacts differently to colors of light that they can't distinguish between.

quote:
If he insisted that no, red and green are the same identical experience, what proof could you furnish that they are different experiences for you?
Experimental data showing that in organisms with wild-type cones, the eyes and brain distinguish between both colors.

Were you expecting this to be a hard question to answer?

Words have meanings. Evidence itself has meaning, it's not just a fancier term to slap on to your favoraite irrational beliefs.
 
Posted by Tresopax (Member # 1063) on :
 
quote:
Ok, design the experiment that lets you distinguish between mental and physical.
We'll do the same experiment you set up for the person who can see humfinor. Start with a bunch of cards. On each card, write something I am familiar with, including objects and experiences. They can be things like "neuron" or "cerebellum" or "the experience of smelling apple pie" or "pain", and then shuffle the cards. Give them to me and I'll sort them into mental and physical. If you want, you can probably offer them to almost any other random person and they'll be able to sort them just the same as I do.

quote:
You've offered absolutely no hint of how you are drawing the distinction, other than an assertion that you are experiencing things and attributing the fact of your ability to experience things to a soul that is distinct from your physical body.
Here's one way to draw the distinction: If it is objective, and multiple people can observe it fully, then it is physical. If it is subjective, and only the person experiencing it can observe it fully, then it is mental.

quote:
If you cannot produce it in the absence of the physical effects, why assert that it is there?
Again, the same reason I assert there's such a thing as "computer software" that is distinct from the hardware, even though I cannot produce it without any hardware. It's still there, even if not independent from the hardware.

quote:
My bad. At some point you posted something that I somehow made the wrong connection from.
No problem! [Smile]
 
Posted by Tresopax (Member # 1063) on :
 
quote:
Are you honestly saying that when you use the term "stong evidence" you

1) mean "some observation with only a tangential connection to physical reality, that is very unreliable at telling us what the physical world really is like"

and

2)honestly expect other people to understand that you mean that when you use the term "strong evidence"

Yes, after I explained it, as I have.

quote:
quote:
If he insisted that no, red and green are the same identical experience, what proof could you furnish that they are different experiences for you?
Experimental data showing that in organisms with wild-type cones, the eyes and brain distinguish between both colors.
This tells you about brains, not experiences. To an average person, this would be convincing, since most people accept a correlation of brains and experiences. But to someone very intent on not accepting that they are different colors, in the approach you are taking to my evidence, that would not be enough.

[ November 03, 2009, 04:01 PM: Message edited by: Tresopax ]
 
Posted by King of Men (Member # 6684) on :
 
quote:
Again, the same reason I assert there's such a thing as "computer software" that is distinct from the hardware, even though I cannot produce it without any hardware. It's still there, even if not independent from the hardware.
No! Software consists only, and exactly, of patterns of electrons! Here you don't even have the thin excuse of qualia; I defy you to assert that Vista has any dang qualia.

Let's try it from another angle. I take it we can agree that a computer does not have a soul, in any sense of that word. Nonetheless we can certainly program a computer to say "ouch" and hit you when you prod it with a needle. The causality here is perfectly straightforward; needle->electrons->cascades of voltages through transistors->robot arm slaps you. No sense of self involved. Yes?

Now do the same thing with a human. Again the causality is perfectly straightforward: Needle->nerves->cascades of electrons and chemicals->arm slaps you. Now if there's a soul, I see only a few options for it:

* It is an illusion, "what an algorithm feels like from the inside".
* It is only an observer; the causal chain linking needle to slap does not involve the sense of self, and is deterministic.
* It is a decisionmaker, and there is a step somewhere in between needle and slap which involves a non-electron pushing an electron; this asserts that, within human brains, momentum is not conserved.

I assert the first; I don't think you have distinguished between options two and three yet. However, in the second case, you must explain why the soul always makes the same decision as the deterministic brain. And for the third case, are you seriously asserting the non-conservation of momentum? If so, please stand up and say so loudly.

[ November 03, 2009, 06:48 PM: Message edited by: King of Men ]
 
Posted by scifibum (Member # 7625) on :
 
quote:
Here's one way to draw the distinction: If it is objective, and multiple people can observe it fully, then it is physical. If it is subjective, and only the person experiencing it can observe it fully, then it is mental.
You're shifting the terms of the discussion again! I wasn't asking for a distinction between 'physical' and 'mental'! Are you now saying that mentation proves the soul? You're just rephrasing the same bare assertion as if it demonstrates anything about your reasoning.
 
Posted by King of Men (Member # 6684) on :
 
quote:
We'll do the same experiment you set up for the person who can see humfinor. Start with a bunch of cards. On each card, write something I am familiar with, including objects and experiences. They can be things like "neuron" or "cerebellum" or "the experience of smelling apple pie" or "pain", and then shuffle the cards.
Your inability to distinguish the symbol from the referent does not make an argument. You might as well assert that, because you can divide the list "run", "rock", "ball", "throw" and "table" into two classes, there really exists a platonic Noun and Verb.
 
Posted by Tresopax (Member # 1063) on :
 
quote:
Software consists only, and exactly, of patterns of electrons!
Perhaps, but it is still distinct from hardware, even while dependent on that hardware. That's the point: Something can be distinct without being independent of another thing.

quote:
Now do the same thing with a human. Again the causality is perfectly straightforward: Needle->nerves->cascades of electrons and chemicals->arm slaps you. Now if there's a soul, I see only a few options for it:

* It is an illusion, "what an algorithm feels like from the inside".
* It is only an observer; the causal chain linking needle to slap does not involve the sense of self, and is deterministic.
* It is a decisionmaker, and there is a step somewhere in between needle and slap which involves a non-electron pushing an electron; this asserts that, within human brains, momentum is not conserved.

I assert the first;

The first option contradicts itself. It requires the existence of an "inside". If there was no soul, there would be no "inside" and thus nothing to experience the illusion.

You could create a robot version of me that claimed it had an "inside" when in reality it did not, and it would talk just like I'm talking - but it would not actually be experiencing an illusion because it has no actual self to experience it.

quote:
You're shifting the terms of the discussion again! I wasn't asking for a distinction between 'physical' and 'mental'!
The following quote from you was not asking for a distinction between physical and mental?

"'I can distinguish easily between mental and physical things, consistently.'

You've offered absolutely no hint of how you are drawing the distinction,"

 
Posted by Raymond Arnold (Member # 11712) on :
 
xkcd was interesting and relevant.
 
Posted by Godric (Member # 4587) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by King of Men:

Let's try it from another angle. I take it we can agree that a computer does not have a soul, in any sense of that word. Nonetheless we can certainly program a computer to say "ouch" and hit you when you prod it with a needle. The causality here is perfectly straightforward; needle->electrons->cascades of voltages through transistors->robot arm slaps you. No sense of self involved. Yes?

Now do the same thing with a human. Again the causality is perfectly straightforward: Needle->nerves->cascades of electrons and chemicals->arm slaps you. Now if there's a soul, I see only a few options for it:

* It is an illusion, "what an algorithm feels like from the inside".
* It is only an observer; the causal chain linking needle to slap does not involve the sense of self, and is deterministic.
* It is a decisionmaker, and there is a step somewhere in between needle and slap which involves a non-electron pushing an electron; this asserts that, within human brains, momentum is not conserved.

I assert the first; I don't think you have distinguished between options two and three yet. However, in the second case, you must explain why the soul always makes the same decision as the deterministic brain. And for the third case, are you seriously asserting the non-conservation of momentum? If so, please stand up and say so loudly.

If I'm reading that right... I'll take door #3, Monty.

I think the soul may work though, not by pushing an electron, but by cutting it off from it's path or diverting it along a different one - if that makes any sense.
 
Posted by King of Men (Member # 6684) on :
 
Same thing as far as conservation of momentum goes. Well then, your theory makes a testable prediction, to wit, "momentum is not conserved in human brains". This contradicts all known physics; the burden of proof is very much on your side. Go set up the experiment, and shut up until you have the evidence.

quote:
The first option contradicts itself. It requires the existence of an "inside". If there was no soul, there would be no "inside" and thus nothing to experience the illusion.
I rephrase: The non-physicality is an illusion. What evidence do you have that a physical system cannot feel? None. Also, you did not say which of the other two options you liked better, nor offer a fourth.
 
Posted by Tresopax (Member # 1063) on :
 
A physical system *can* feel, in the sense that physical systems can seemingly be somehow linked to a soul, which in turn can experience feelings. But the feeling itself, and the entity experiencing the feeling, cannot be physical because their properties contradict what it means to be physical. What do you think it means to say something is "physical" or "material"?

As for which of the other two options I like better - I really don't have much evidence either way. You are essentially asking whether the soul reflects the brain or whether the brain reflects the soul, and I don't have the knowledge or the ability to study that. Neuroscientists may one day be able to see for certain whether the conservation of energy holds true everywhere within the brain, but I am not aware of any such study at the moment. Given that you told Godric to shut up until he has evidence, I don't think you want me to take up a position on this point until I have stronger evidence.
 
Posted by scifibum (Member # 7625) on :
 
Honestly, Tres, your entire argument seems to boil down to "I postulate that the soul does things that the body can't do, and I experience those things, QED."

(Oh, btw, sorry for making a mistake about what I was asking. My bad.)
 
Posted by Tresopax (Member # 1063) on :
 
That's the heart of my premise, more or less. The conclusion is "Therefore the soul exists."

I have no argument for the premise that I experience things. It's just an observation - a piece of data. If you don't experience things, or you don't observe that you experience things in the way I'm talking about, you won't be convinced by my argument.
 
Posted by scifibum (Member # 7625) on :
 
It's a very circular argument, you realize.
 
Posted by King of Men (Member # 6684) on :
 
quote:
But the feeling itself, and the entity experiencing the feeling, cannot be physical because their properties contradict what it means to be physical. What do you think it means to say something is "physical" or "material"?
The question is rather, what do you think it means to be non-material? The feeling, and the entity, both consist of patterns in the brain. They are made of electrons. If you move the electrons around, the feeling changes; move them enough, and the entity goes away. That's physics.
 
Posted by Tresopax (Member # 1063) on :
 
quote:
It's a very circular argument, you realize.
Not any more circular than "I see things and seeing things requires an eye from which to see, therefore my eye exists."

quote:
The question is rather, what do you think it means to be non-material? The feeling, and the entity, both consist of patterns in the brain. They are made of electrons. If you move the electrons around, the feeling changes; move them enough, and the entity goes away. That's physics.
Not being made of electrons is one element of being non-material, at least. The feelings I observe myself having, and the self having those feelings are not the sort of thing that can be constructed out of electrons. No infinitely large diagram of electrons in a given pattern will tell you what it is to experience something if you haven't experienced it yourself. And you can't observe a set of electrons in my brain and know for sure whether I truly have a "self" that is experiencing things or whether I am just acting like I do.
 
Posted by fugu13 (Member # 2859) on :
 
Tres: that's a fascinating example, considering it doesn't require an eye to see anything. The brain is perfectly capable of coming up with images (especially if subject to stimulation) all on its own, and we're already approaching the point of being able to induce particular images.

So, if you think the arguments are similarly well-supported, then you've just undermined your soul argument.
 
Posted by twinky (Member # 693) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Tresopax:
But the feeling itself, and the entity experiencing the feeling, cannot be physical because their properties contradict what it means to be physical.

I'm not a particularly strong materialist, but this doesn't make sense at all. There is no particular reason that those things cannot be physical. Here is one possible explanation:

Physically, the feeling is an electrochemical cascade that passes through nerves. The experience is an electrochemical cascade within the brain of the entity, one that that forms particular patterns. If these patterns are similar to ones that have happened to this brain in the past, another electrochemical cascade within the brain associates the current experience with the past experience.
 
Posted by twinky (Member # 693) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by Tresopax:
The feelings I observe myself having, and the self having those feelings are not the sort of thing that can be constructed out of electrons.
No infinitely large diagram of electrons in a given pattern will tell you what it is to experience something if you haven't experienced it yourself. And you can't observe a set of electrons in my brain and know for sure whether I truly have a "self" that is experiencing things or whether I am just acting like I do.

I have three questions: why not, why not, and why not?

You're asserting these things as axiomatic, not demonstrating them with logic or evidence as you claim to be doing. I think that's why you attract so much argument every time you start talking about this stuff.
 
Posted by King of Men (Member # 6684) on :
 
quote:
The feelings I observe myself having, and the self having those feelings are not the sort of thing that can be constructed out of electrons.
Sez you! I can move electrons around in a particular pattern in your brain and make you experience anything you choose.
 
Posted by MattP (Member # 10495) on :
 
quote:
The brain is perfectly capable of coming up with images (especially if subject to stimulation) all on its own, and we're already approaching the point of being able to induce particular images.
We're already at that point. It's just that the images are of very low fidelity at the moment.
 
Posted by MrSquicky (Member # 1802) on :
 
quote:
I can move electrons around in a particular pattern in your brain and make you experience anything you choose.
No, you can't. We don't know how to do this and we're not sure if we ever will. That's just a belief you hold without confirming evidence. That your ideology says that is will be the case doesn't magically make it so or based in any sort of real world science.
 
Posted by TomDavidson (Member # 124) on :
 
quote:
We don't know how to do this and we're not sure if we ever will.
We have done things, though, like identify particular neuron(s) that, when stimulated, make a given individual taste cake or forget Bill Clinton's name. It's doubtful that a perfect map of anyone's brain is going to be possible in our lifetimes, because of the way brains grow, but it turns out that sensations and memories behave pretty predictably once you know where they are for a given person.
 
Posted by King of Men (Member # 6684) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by MrSquicky:
quote:
I can move electrons around in a particular pattern in your brain and make you experience anything you choose.
No, you can't. We don't know how to do this and we're not sure if we ever will. That's just a belief you hold without confirming evidence. That your ideology says that is will be the case doesn't magically make it so or based in any sort of real world science.
Well - fair enough, I overstated the case of what we can do with current technology. But see Tom's post above.
 
Posted by MrSquicky (Member # 1802) on :
 
quote:
Originally posted by King of Men:
quote:
Originally posted by MrSquicky:
quote:
I can move electrons around in a particular pattern in your brain and make you experience anything you choose.
No, you can't. We don't know how to do this and we're not sure if we ever will. That's just a belief you hold without confirming evidence. That your ideology says that is will be the case doesn't magically make it so or based in any sort of real world science.
Well - fair enough, I overstated the case of what we can do with current technology. But see Tom's post above.
I'm not sure what you think Tom's post says, but it doesn't support your position.

You assume that we will be able to do these things because it fits your ideology, but there is no scientific basis to support this. You're then using this assumption that we will be able to do this to prove that your ideology is correct, but we will only be able to do these things that we don't even know are possible if your ideology is correct.

Not exactly the strongest argument there and one that shows many of the same faults you are trying to cast onto others.
 
Posted by TomDavidson (Member # 124) on :
 
quote:
I'm not sure what you think Tom's post says, but it doesn't support your position.
Well, it depends. If, for example, we find a chemical indicator for the neuron that makes people experience cake -- which is unlikely, but not outside the realm of possibility -- it WOULD be the case that KoM could in fact make you experience the taste of cake whenever he felt like it.

I think the idea that the mechanism of experience can be directly manipulated is at the core of KoM's assertion, and it's certainly not a claim that's outside the realm of possibility.
 
Posted by King of Men (Member # 6684) on :
 
quote:
You assume that we will be able to do these things because it fits your ideology, but there is no scientific basis to support this.
Wait, what? I say "We can make you taste cake whenever we feel like it, by manipulating electrons", Tom points to an experiment which indeed did precisely that, and you say it doesn't support my position? Does not compute.
 


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