posted
So far I've read the prologue and the first scene side-by-side with the original. The verdict: it's wonderful! When he can't come up with ways to translate the original shakespearian puns (which fill the first scene, and indeed most of the play) he makes up new ones which are true to the style and content of the old.
When did he write this, and for whom?
I've been saying for quite some time that it's a shame that English-speaking countries are the only ones denied the pleasure of reading Shakespeare in our native language. This seems a reasonable attempt at solving the problem
Obviously, you can expect to loose some of the poetry in translation (as with any translation), but it makes perfect sense for a work like this to exist.
Those that don't speak spanish read Cervantes in translation, knowing that they'll get most (if not all) of the flavor of the original work. And those, like me, who know spanish but not well enough to read fluently, might sit down with both a translation and the original. The going is slow, but rewarding.
In the same way, OSC's Romeo and Juliet can enhance your understanding of the original of read side-by-side, or give you a flavorful and much more easily digestible version of read on its own.
Bravo Card! I just want to know what prompted this.
Posts: 61 | Registered: Jan 2005
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posted
I wouldn't normally do this, but I think this thread is really redundant. Considering that another thread covering all these same questions is only about ten threads down the page, that is.
Posts: 5462 | Registered: Apr 2005
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